ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is explaining that each breast contains 12 to 20 cone-shaped lobes. The nurse should explain that each lobe consists of what elements?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Lobules and ducts. Each lobe of the breast consists of lobules, which are responsible for milk production, and ducts, which transport the milk to the nipple. This is essential for breastfeeding. Modified tendons and ligaments (choice A) are not present in the lobes of the breast. Connective tissue and smooth muscle (choice B) are important components of the breast but do not specifically make up the lobes. Endocrine glands and sebaceous glands (choice D) are not the primary elements within the lobes of the breast responsible for milk production and transport. The lobules and ducts are vital components for the functioning of the breast in lactation.
Question 2 of 9
A patient who has had a lumpectomy calls the clinic to talk to the nurse. The patient tells the nurse that she has developed a tender area on her breast that is red and warm and looks like someone drew a line with a red marker. What would the nurse suspect is the womans problem?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Mondor disease. This condition presents as a superficial thrombophlebitis of the breast veins, causing a tender, red, warm, cord-like area resembling a red line. This is typically benign and self-limiting. B: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the breast is unlikely as it typically involves deeper veins in the extremities. C: Recurrent malignancy is less likely as the symptoms described are more indicative of a benign condition like Mondor disease. D: An area of fat necrosis is also less likely as it usually presents as a painless, firm lump rather than a red, warm, tender area.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with end-stage heart failure has participated in a family meeting with the interdisciplinary team and opted for hospice care. On what belief should the patients care in this setting be based
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Meaningful living during terminal illness is best supported in the home. This is because hospice care focuses on providing compassionate care and support in the comfort of the patient's own home, which can enhance quality of life and dignity. Being in a familiar and comfortable environment allows the patient to receive personalized care and emotional support from family members. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because hospice care emphasizes comfort and quality of life over technologic interventions, designated facilities, and prolonging physiologic dying. Ultimately, the goal of hospice care is to prioritize the patient's emotional and physical well-being during the end stages of life.
Question 4 of 9
An oncology nurse is contributing to the care of a patient who has failed to respond appreciably to conventional cancer treatments. As a result, the care team is considering the possible use of biologic response modifiers (BRFs). The nurse should know that these achieve a therapeutic effect by what means?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focusing the patient's immune system exclusively on the tumor. Biologic response modifiers (BRMs) work by enhancing the body's natural defenses to target and attack cancer cells specifically. This approach helps the immune system to recognize and destroy cancer cells while minimizing harm to normal cells. A: Promoting the synthesis and release of leukocytes - This is not the primary mechanism of action for BRMs. While leukocytes play a role in the immune response, BRMs target the immune system's response to tumors. C: Potentiating the effects of chemotherapeutic agents and radiation therapy - While some BRMs may be used in combination with these treatments, their primary mode of action is not to enhance the effects of chemotherapy or radiation therapy. D: Altering the immunologic relationship between the tumor and the patient - This choice is too broad and vague. BRMs specifically aim to direct the immune response towards targeting the tumor cells, rather than altering the overall immunologic relationship
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is providing care for a patient who has experienced a type I hypersensitivity reaction. What condition is an example of such a reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anaphylactic reaction after a bee sting. Type I hypersensitivity reactions involve an immediate response triggered by exposure to an allergen, leading to the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. In this case, a bee sting would introduce an allergen, causing a rapid and severe systemic reaction, known as anaphylaxis. B: Skin reaction resulting from adhesive tape is an example of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction, mediated by T cells, not IgE antibodies as in Type I reactions. C: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder involving antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors, not a Type I hypersensitivity reaction. D: Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder involving immune complexes and inflammatory responses, not a Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is admitting a 55-year-old male patient diagnosed with a retinal detachment in his left eye. While assessing this patient, what characteristic symptom would the nurse expect to find?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why A is correct: 1. Retinal detachment causes traction on the retina. 2. Traction on the retina can stimulate photoreceptors. 3. Stimulation of photoreceptors can lead to perception of flashing lights. 4. Therefore, the characteristic symptom of retinal detachment is flashing lights in the visual field. Summary: B: Sudden eye pain is not a characteristic symptom of retinal detachment. C: Loss of color vision is not typically associated with retinal detachment. D: Colored halos around lights are more indicative of conditions like glaucoma or corneal edema, not retinal detachment.
Question 7 of 9
A patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) in a state of anaphylaxis. What is the ED nurses priority for care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protect the patient's airway. In anaphylaxis, airway compromise can lead to respiratory distress and even respiratory arrest. The priority is to ensure the patient has a patent airway to maintain oxygenation. This can be achieved through interventions such as positioning, oxygen therapy, and potentially intubation if needed. Monitoring the patient's level of consciousness (A) is important but secondary to ensuring airway patency. Providing psychosocial support (C) is not the immediate priority in anaphylaxis. Administering medications (D) is also important but only after ensuring the airway is protected.
Question 8 of 9
An abortion when the fetus dies but is retained in the uterus is called
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: missed. In a missed abortion, the fetus dies but is not immediately expelled from the uterus. This term specifically describes the situation where the fetus is retained in the uterus. Choice A (inevitable) refers to a situation where abortion is certain to occur, choice C (incomplete) refers to partial expulsion of the fetus, and choice D (threatened) refers to a situation where the woman has vaginal bleeding, but the fetus is still viable. Therefore, the term "missed" accurately describes the scenario where the fetus dies but remains in the uterus.
Question 9 of 9
A public health nurse has formed an interdisciplinary team that is developing an educational program entitled Cancer: The Risks and What You Can Do About Them. Participants will receive information, but the major focus will be screening for relevant cancers. This program is an example of what type of health promotion activity?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Secondary prevention. This program focuses on screening for relevant cancers, which is a key component of secondary prevention aimed at early detection and treatment to reduce the impact of the disease. Secondary prevention aims to identify and treat health conditions in their early stages. Disease prophylaxis (A) focuses on preventing the occurrence of a disease, while risk reduction (B) aims to lower the chances of developing a disease. Tertiary prevention (D) involves managing and improving outcomes for individuals already diagnosed with a disease. In this scenario, the emphasis on screening aligns closely with the goals of secondary prevention, making it the most appropriate choice.