A nurse is discharging a client from the hospital. When should discharge planning be initiated?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Discharge planning should start at admission to ensure comprehensive preparation. 2. Early planning allows for assessment of needs and coordination of resources. 3. It promotes continuity of care and reduces risks of readmission. 4. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they miss the opportunity for proactive planning.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because monitoring for signs of infection, air embolus, and leakage/puncture are crucial in caring for a patient with a central venous line to prevent serious complications. Infections can lead to sepsis, air embolus can cause respiratory distress, and leakage/puncture can result in hemorrhage or damage to surrounding tissues. A: While a complete blood count and electrolytes may be important for monitoring the patient's overall health, they are not specific to the central venous line care. B: Regular chest x-rays are not necessary unless there are specific indications of line malposition or complications. C: Continuous infusion at a keep-vein-open rate is a standard practice but does not address the critical aspects of central line care mentioned in option D. Therefore, monitoring for signs of infection, air embolus, and leakage/puncture is the most essential component of the plan of care for a patient with a central venous line.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because drinking lots of water at night actually helps prevent UTIs by flushing out bacteria from the urinary tract. Holding the urge to urinate (Choice A) can increase the risk of UTIs as bacteria can multiply in stagnant urine. Insertion of instruments and catheters (Choice B) can introduce bacteria, leading to infection. Unhygienic cleaning after defecation (Choice D) can also introduce bacteria to the urinary tract, causing UTIs. Therefore, Choice C is the exception as it does not contribute to the common causes of UTIs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because changing habits and customs that predispose the individual to cancer is crucial in preventing cancer. This includes lifestyle changes such as quitting smoking, maintaining a healthy diet, exercising regularly, and avoiding excessive sun exposure. By modifying behaviors that increase cancer risk, individuals can significantly reduce their chances of developing cancer. A: Increasing governmental control of potential carcinogens is not the first step towards effective cancer control as individual behaviors have a more direct impact on cancer risk. C: Conducting more mass screening programs is important but not the first step as prevention through lifestyle changes takes priority. D: Educating the public and professionals about cancer is essential but changing habits is the initial crucial step in effective cancer control.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypocalcemia. Severe diarrhea can lead to electrolyte imbalances, including low calcium levels. Decreased muscle tone and deep tendon reflexes are classic signs of hypocalcemia. Calcium is essential for proper muscle function and nerve transmission. Hypernatremia (A) is high sodium levels, not related to decreased muscle tone. Hyperchloremia (B) is high chloride levels, not associated with muscle tone changes. Hypokalemia (C) is low potassium levels, which can cause muscle weakness but not specifically decreased muscle tone and deep tendon reflexes like hypocalcemia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Glucagon. In a hypoglycemic reaction, glucagon can be administered to raise blood sugar levels quickly. Glucagon works by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream. This is crucial in emergencies when oral carbohydrates are not feasible. Epinephrine (A) is used for severe allergic reactions, not hypoglycemia. 50% dextrose (B) is an oral carbohydrate used for hypoglycemia but is not always practical. Hydrocortisone (D) is a corticosteroid used for inflammatory conditions, not for hypoglycemic emergencies.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focused assessment. In this scenario, the nurse is continuously monitoring specific aspects such as vital signs, pupils, and orientation at regular intervals, which is characteristic of a focused assessment. This type of assessment allows the nurse to gather specific data related to the client's condition and respond promptly to any changes. A: Initial assessment is conducted upon admission to establish baseline data. C: Time-lapsed reassessment involves comparing current data to previous assessments over a longer period. D: Emergency assessment is performed in urgent situations to quickly identify life-threatening issues. By systematically assessing the client's vital signs, pupils, and orientation at frequent intervals, the nurse can provide timely and appropriate care in the intensive care unit setting.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Abnormal sensations such as burning and numbness. In AIDS-related DSP, damage to nerves causes abnormal sensations like burning and numbness. This is due to the progressive nerve damage affecting sensory functions. Staggering gait and muscle incoordination (A) are more common in conditions affecting motor nerves. Delusional thinking (C) is not a symptom of DSP. Incontinence (D) is not typically associated with DSP but may happen in more advanced stages due to loss of sensation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Discharge planning should start at admission to ensure comprehensive preparation. 2. Early planning allows for assessment of needs and coordination of resources. 3. It promotes continuity of care and reduces risks of readmission. 4. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they miss the opportunity for proactive planning.