ATI RN
Fundamentals Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is directed to administer a hypotonic intravenous solution. The nurse expects that compensatory mechanisms associated with hypovolemia would cause all of the following symptoms except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 0.90% sodium chloride. When administering a hypotonic solution like 0.45% sodium chloride or 5% dextrose in water, water moves into the cells causing them to swell. This can exacerbate symptoms of hypovolemia such as low blood pressure and decreased perfusion. However, 0.90% sodium chloride is an isotonic solution and will not further exacerbate hypovolemic symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are hypotonic solutions that can worsen hypovolemic symptoms by causing cellular swelling.
Question 2 of 9
You would not find which of the following assessments in a patient with severe anemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cold sensitivity. Severe anemia leads to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues, causing symptoms like pallor, fatigue, and dyspnea on exertion due to the body compensating for low oxygen levels. Cold sensitivity is not a common symptom associated with anemia. The other choices are directly related to severe anemia due to the lack of oxygen delivery to tissues.
Question 3 of 9
The client is being evaluated for hypothyroidism. During assessment, the nurse should stay alert for:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, decreased body temperature and cold intolerance, because these are classic signs of hypothyroidism due to decreased thyroid hormone levels. The body's metabolism slows down, leading to a lower core body temperature and reduced ability to tolerate cold. Exophthalmos and conjunctival redness (choice A) are associated with hyperthyroidism. Flushed, warm, moist skin (choice B) is indicative of hyperthyroidism as well, due to increased metabolic rate. A systolic murmur at the left sternal border (choice C) is not a common finding in hypothyroidism.
Question 4 of 9
A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse can infer that the patient is apprehensive about discharge based on the subjective data of the patient expressing fear of going home and being alone. This indicates the patient may not feel ready to leave the hospital setting. Choice A is incorrect because the patient's fear of going home suggests they may not be comfortable performing dressing changes alone. Choice B is incorrect because there is no information provided to support that the patient can begin retaking all previous medications. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication that the fear of going home is related to the success of the surgery.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is being given Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the ff. is a usual adult daily dosage of digoxin (Lanoxin)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: C: 0.25 mg is the correct daily dosage of Digoxin for adults with heart failure. This dosage is within the usual range of 0.125-0.25 mg. It helps improve heart function and manage heart failure symptoms. A: 0.005 mg is too low and ineffective. B: 0.025 mg is also too low for therapeutic effect. D: 2.5 mg is too high and may lead to toxicity in most adult patients.
Question 6 of 9
Blood and fluid loss from frequent diarrhea may cause hypovolemia and you can quickly assess volume depletion in Miss CC by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Comparing the patient’s present weight with her last weight. This is the most direct and reliable method to assess volume depletion due to fluid loss. By comparing the patient's current weight with her last weight, you can easily determine if there has been a significant decrease in weight indicating fluid loss and potential hypovolemia. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Measuring the quantity and specific gravity of her urine output - This method may provide some information about hydration status, but it is not as direct or reliable as comparing weight changes. B: Taking her blood pressure - While blood pressure can indicate hypovolemia, it may not provide immediate insight into volume depletion caused by diarrhea. D: Administering the oral water test - This test is not commonly used to assess volume depletion and may not be as effective or quick as comparing weight changes.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse needs to assess a client who is undergoing urinary diversion. Which of the ff assessment is essential for the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client's medical history of allergy to iodine or seafood is crucial for urinary diversion assessment to prevent potential adverse reactions during procedures involving contrast media or seafood-based medications. It is essential to ensure the client's safety and avoid any allergic reactions. Choice A is incorrect because assessing sexual function is not directly related to urinary diversion assessment. Choice C is also incorrect as urinary diversion does not typically affect nervous control. Choice D is irrelevant to the assessment of a client undergoing urinary diversion.
Question 8 of 9
Mrs. Go a 75-year old female suffered a fdall and is diagnosed with a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 interspace, and a second st the C5-C6 interspace.Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to discover during the assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: pain in the scapular region. This is because a herniated nucleus pulposus at the C4-C5 and C5-C6 interspaces typically results in pain radiating from the neck to the scapular region due to nerve compression at those levels. The other choices are incorrect as constant, throbbing headaches are not typically associated with this specific diagnosis, clonus in the lower extremities is more indicative of lower spinal cord involvement, and numbness of the face is not a common symptom of herniated discs at these levels.
Question 9 of 9
A mother brings her children into the clinic and they are diagnosed with chickenpox. The mother had chickenpox as a child and is not concerned with contracting the disease when caring for her children. what type of immunity does this mother have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active natural immunity. The mother had chickenpox as a child, which triggered her immune system to produce antibodies, providing long-lasting protection. This is an example of active immunity because her immune system actively responded to the pathogen. Summary: B: Passive artificial immunity - This involves receiving pre-made antibodies, not produced by the individual's immune system. C: Passive natural immunity - This is acquired through placental transfer or breastfeeding, not through prior exposure to the pathogen. D: Active artificial immunity - This is acquired through vaccination, not through natural exposure to the pathogen.