ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is describing the purposes of a healthcare record to a group of nursing students. Which purposes will the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all thatapply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Communication. Healthcare records are essential for effective communication among healthcare providers to ensure continuity of care. They help convey important information about a patient's condition, treatment plan, and progress. Explanation: 1. Communication: Healthcare records facilitate communication between different healthcare team members, ensuring coordinated and efficient care delivery. 2. Legal documentation: While important, legal documentation is a separate purpose of healthcare records, not directly related to communication. 3. Reimbursement: Healthcare records are used for billing and reimbursement purposes, but this is not directly related to communication. 4. Nursing process: The nursing process involves assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation of patient care, which is documented in healthcare records. However, this is not a primary purpose related to communication.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with a recent diagnosis of HIV infection expresses an interest in exploring alternative and complementary therapies. How should the nurse best respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it acknowledges that many HIV patients use alternative therapies and emphasizes the importance of weighing the benefits and risks. This response shows respect for the patient's autonomy and preferences while also recognizing the need for informed decision-making. Choice A is incorrect because it dismisses complementary therapies outright without considering individual patient needs or preferences. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests avoiding alternative therapies entirely, which may not align with the patient's wishes or experiences. Choice D is incorrect as it presents a false dichotomy between alternative and medical approaches, disregarding the possibility of integrating both types of treatments.
Question 3 of 9
A medical nurse is providing palliative care to a patient with a diagnosis of end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What is the primary goal of this nurses care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: To improve the patients and familys quality of life. In palliative care for end-stage COPD, the primary goal is to enhance quality of life by managing symptoms, providing emotional support, and ensuring comfort. Choice B is incorrect as palliative care focuses on comfort rather than aggressive treatments. Choice C is incorrect because palliative care encompasses not only physical but also emotional, social, and spiritual support. Choice D is incorrect as the goal is to provide holistic care rather than separate plans for each discipline. Ultimately, the primary focus of palliative care in this scenario is to improve the overall quality of life for the patient and their family.
Question 4 of 9
A 35-year-old mother of three young children has been diagnosed with stage II breast cancer. After discussing treatment options with her physician, the woman goes home to talk to her husband, later calling the nurse for clarification of some points. The patient tells the nurse that the physician has recommended breast conservation surgery followed by radiation. The patients husband has done some online research and is asking why his wife does not have a modified radical mastectomy to be sure all the cancer is gone. What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: According to current guidelines, breast conservation combined with radiation is as effective as a modified radical mastectomy. 1. Breast conservation surgery followed by radiation is a standard treatment option for early-stage breast cancer. 2. Studies have shown that breast conservation surgery combined with radiation therapy is equally effective in terms of long-term survival rates compared to mastectomy. 3. Current guidelines recommend considering breast conservation surgery as a viable option for patients with early-stage breast cancer. 4. Modified radical mastectomy is not necessarily needed to ensure complete removal of cancer, as breast conservation surgery followed by radiation can achieve the same goal. 5. Therefore, the nurse should reassure the patient's husband that the recommended treatment plan is based on current guidelines and is as effective as a modified radical mastectomy.
Question 5 of 9
The clinic nurse is assessing a child who has been brought to the clinic with signs and symptoms that are suggestive of otitis externa. What assessment finding is characteristic of otitis externa?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pain on manipulation of the auricle is characteristic of otitis externa. This is because otitis externa is an infection or inflammation of the outer ear canal, causing pain and tenderness when the ear is touched or manipulated. A: Tophi on the pinna and ear lobe is characteristic of gout, not otitis externa. B: Dark yellow cerumen in the external auditory canal is common and not specific to otitis externa. D: Air bubbles visible in the middle ear are associated with otitis media, not otitis externa. In summary, pain on manipulation of the auricle is a key assessment finding in otitis externa, distinguishing it from other ear conditions.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with preeclampsia is being treated with bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate. The drug classification of this medication is a
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: anticonvulsant. Magnesium sulfate is used in the treatment of preeclampsia to prevent seizures, making it an anticonvulsant. It works by reducing neuromuscular excitability and stabilizing nerve cell membranes. Choice A (diuretic) is incorrect because magnesium sulfate does not primarily promote diuresis. Choice B (tocolytic) is incorrect as it does not inhibit uterine contractions. Choice D (antihypertensive) is incorrect because although magnesium sulfate can help lower blood pressure in preeclampsia, its primary indication in this case is for seizure prophylaxis.
Question 7 of 9
A patient was prescribed an oral antibiotic for the treatment of sinusitis. The patient has now stopped, stating she developed a rash shortly after taking the first dose of the drug. What is the nurses most appropriate response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Refer the woman to her primary care provider to have the medication changed. Rationale: 1. Rash after taking the first dose of an antibiotic suggests a possible allergic reaction. 2. Allergic reactions can range from mild to severe, including anaphylaxis. 3. It is crucial to discontinue the suspected medication to prevent worsening of the reaction. 4. Referring the patient to their primary care provider ensures proper evaluation and management. 5. Changing the medication is necessary to avoid potential harm from continued exposure. Summary: A: Continuing the medication can worsen the allergic reaction and is not recommended. C: Going to the emergency department may be excessive at this point for a mild rash. D: Taking an antihistamine does not address the underlying issue of an allergic reaction.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is teaching patients about health care information. Which patient will the nurse assess closely for health literacy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because patients with lower health literacy, such as those with a high-school diploma, may struggle to understand complex health information. The nurse should assess this patient closely to ensure they comprehend and can follow instructions. Patients with higher education levels (college degree) may have better health literacy skills. Age alone (35 or 68 years old) does not determine health literacy level. It is essential to focus on the patient's educational background to assess their health literacy effectively.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse would identify that a colleague needs additional instruction on standard precautions when the colleague exhibits which of the following behaviors?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because putting on a second pair of gloves over soiled gloves during a procedure violates standard precautions by increasing contamination risk. Here's the rationale: 1. Standard precautions require removing soiled gloves before putting on new ones to prevent cross-contamination. 2. Wearing multiple gloves increases the risk of tearing and exposure to pathogens. 3. This behavior shows a lack of understanding of proper infection control practices. Summary of other choices: A: Wearing face protection, gloves, and a gown when irrigating a wound is a correct practice. B: Washing hands with waterless antiseptic after removing soiled gloves is correct. D: Placing a used needle and syringe in a puncture-resistant container without capping the needle is incorrect, but not as severe as choice C.