A nurse is demonstrating behaviors that the treatment team is attempting to get the patient to develop. The nurse is integrating which theory?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Albert Bandura's social cognitive theory. Bandura's theory emphasizes observational learning, where individuals acquire new behaviors through watching others. In this scenario, the nurse is demonstrating behaviors for the patient to develop, aligning with Bandura's theory. This theory also emphasizes self-efficacy and the role of cognitive processes in behavior change, which are relevant in healthcare settings. Choice A (Erikson's model of psychosocial development) focuses on stages of psychosocial development across the lifespan, which is not directly related to the nurse's demonstration of behaviors. Choice C (Skinner's operant conditioning) emphasizes reinforcement and punishment to shape behavior, which is not the primary mechanism at play in the nurse's demonstration. Choice D (Freud's psychoanalytic model) emphasizes unconscious processes and early childhood experiences, which are not directly applicable to the nurse's intentional demonstration of behaviors.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ramelteon. Ramelteon is a melatonin receptor agonist, specifically targeting the MT1 and MT2 receptors to regulate the sleep-wake cycle. This mechanism of action helps in promoting sleep onset and regulating the circadian rhythm. Trazodone (A) is a serotonin antagonist and reuptake inhibitor used off-label for insomnia. Estazolam (B) is a benzodiazepine used as a hypnotic. Mirtazapine (C) is an antidepressant with sedating effects but does not act as a melatonin receptor agonist.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Manage the patient's withdrawal symptoms well. This is crucial as effective management of withdrawal symptoms is essential in the early days of rehabilitation to ensure the patient's success. By addressing withdrawal symptoms promptly and effectively, the patient is more likely to remain engaged in the treatment process and have a smoother transition into the rehabilitation program. A: Restricting visitors to family members only may not be the most critical initial intervention and could potentially isolate the patient from important sources of support. C: Providing a low stimulus environment is important but may not be as immediately impactful as managing withdrawal symptoms, which directly addresses the patient's physical and psychological discomfort. D: Advocating for at least 3 months of treatment is important for long-term success, but managing withdrawal symptoms should take precedence in the initial days after admission.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Tell me about what you are experiencing and what it means to you." This response is appropriate because it allows the caller to describe their own experience and feelings, providing insight into their current situation and emotional state. By listening to the caller's story and understanding their perspective, the nurse can assess the severity of the crisis and provide appropriate support. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on the extent of involvement rather than understanding the caller's experience. Choice C is incorrect because a numerical rating doesn't provide a comprehensive understanding of the caller's situation. Choice D is incorrect as it assumes the caller knows why they are in a crisis rather than allowing them to express their feelings and experiences.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because screening a group of males between the ages of 15 and 25 for early symptoms is a well-chosen intervention for addressing a population at high risk for developing schizophrenia. Schizophrenia often manifests in late adolescence and early adulthood, making this age group particularly vulnerable. Early detection and intervention can lead to better outcomes. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on females with substance use issues, which is not specifically related to the high-risk population for schizophrenia. Choice C is not as well suited because it targets an older age group not typically associated with the onset of schizophrenia. Choice D is also incorrect because it focuses on educating parents of developmentally delayed children, which is not directly related to addressing the high-risk population for schizophrenia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anticholinergics. In Parkinson's disease, anticholinergics are commonly used to manage symptoms by blocking the action of acetylcholine, which is an excitatory neurotransmitter. These medications can worsen cognitive impairment in patients with dementia. Assessing for anticholinergic use in the client's history is crucial to prevent exacerbating cognitive decline. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Dopamine agonists are used to treat Parkinson's disease and would not be directly related to worsening cognitive impairment in this scenario. C: Anxiolytics are used to treat anxiety and would not directly impact cognitive impairment related to Parkinson's disease. D: Benzodiazepines are used to treat anxiety and insomnia, but they are not typically associated with worsening cognitive impairment in Parkinson's disease.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because antisocial personality disorder requires the individual to be at least 18 years of age for a diagnosis according to the DSM-5 criteria. This age requirement is essential as the disorder is characterized by a persistent pattern of disregard for the rights of others, deceitfulness, impulsivity, irritability, and aggressiveness, which typically manifest in late adolescence or early adulthood. Choice A is incorrect because antisocial personality disorder is more commonly diagnosed in men than in women. Choice C is incorrect as the disorder is not specific to any particular ethnic or racial group. Choice D is incorrect because individuals with antisocial personality disorder often have a higher likelihood of substance abuse, including alcohol abuse, as a co-occurring condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: glutamate. Glutamate is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain and plays a crucial role in the pathophysiology of schizophrenia. Research has shown abnormalities in glutamatergic neurotransmission in individuals with schizophrenia, including NMDA receptor hypofunction. GABA (A) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter and is not directly implicated in schizophrenia. Norepinephrine (C) and acetylcholine (D) are not the primary neurotransmitters associated with schizophrenia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the anti-psychiatry movement aims to enhance transparency and client involvement in treatment decisions. This aligns with their belief in empowering individuals and prioritizing their autonomy in their own mental health care. By involving clients in treatment decisions and promoting transparency, the movement seeks to challenge traditional hierarchical structures in psychiatry. Choice A is incorrect as the anti-psychiatry movement generally opposes involuntary treatments due to ethical concerns. Choice C is incorrect as the movement actually emphasizes the importance of social determinants of mental health and advocates for addressing these factors. Choice D is incorrect as the movement does not aim to eliminate all medications, but rather questions the overreliance on medication as the primary form of treatment.