ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is conducting an admission assessment for a newly admitted patient. What aspect of cultural competence should the nurse prioritize during the assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Asking the patient about their cultural background and preferences shows respect for their individuality and acknowledges the importance of cultural competence in providing person-centered care. 2. It allows the nurse to gain valuable insights into the patient's beliefs, values, and practices, enabling them to deliver culturally appropriate care. 3. By prioritizing this aspect, the nurse can establish rapport, build trust, and enhance communication with the patient, leading to better outcomes. 4. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either involve assumptions, avoidance, or disregard for the patient's cultural background, which can lead to misunderstandings, discomfort, and ineffective care.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following is the RATIONALE for instilling eye drops to patients who had eye surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: To help control the intra-ocular pressure Rationale: 1. Eye surgery can lead to increased intra-ocular pressure. 2. Instilling eye drops can help reduce this pressure post-surgery. 3. Controlling intra-ocular pressure is crucial for proper healing and preventing complications. 4. Eye drops for infection (B) or pupil dilation/constriction (C, D) are not primary concerns post-eye surgery.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following situation is an example of incongruent message?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Incongruent message occurs when verbal and nonverbal communication do not align. Step 2: Choice C states "When what the nurse says and does do not agree," indicating a lack of alignment. Step 3: This inconsistency can lead to confusion or mistrust in communication. Step 4: Choices A, B, and D all describe situations with alignment between words and actions, making them congruent. Summary: Choice C is correct as it exemplifies incongruent communication, while Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they describe congruent messages.
Question 4 of 9
When communicating with a patient who is hard of hearing, what is an essential consideration for the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because positioning oneself at eye level helps the patient see the nurse's facial expressions and lip movements, aiding in communication. Speaking clearly and slowly allows the patient to better understand. Speaking loudly can distort sound and may not be necessary. Avoiding visual aids or gestures limits communication channels. Speaking quickly can overwhelm the patient and hinder comprehension.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is aware that which occurrence in the patient 's health history suggests the diagnosis of GBS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a viral illness few weeks before can trigger Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) due to the body's immune response attacking the peripheral nerves. Encephalitis (B), severe bacterial infection (C), and meningitis (D) are not directly linked to GBS pathophysiology. Viral infections are known to precede GBS development, making choice A the most appropriate option.
Question 6 of 9
A patient presents with chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis. A ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan reveals a mismatched defect. Which cardiovascular disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pulmonary embolism. This is the most likely cause of the symptoms based on the presentation of chest pain, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and a mismatched defect on the V/Q scan. A pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot travels to the lungs, causing a blockage in the pulmonary artery. This can lead to symptoms like chest pain, shortness of breath, and coughing up blood. The V/Q scan showing a mismatched defect indicates a ventilation-perfusion mismatch, which is a classic finding in pulmonary embolism. Pericarditis (B), acute myocardial infarction (C), and aortic dissection (D) typically present with different sets of symptoms and do not match the V/Q scan findings in this case.
Question 7 of 9
You should check the patient for suspect disturbed thought processes related to depressed metabolism and altered cardiovascular and respiratory status. What is the rationale for orienting the patient to time, place, date, and events?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provides reality orientation to patient. Orienting the patient to time, place, date, and events helps them stay connected to reality and improves their awareness of their surroundings. This is crucial in assessing their cognitive functioning and ensuring they are grounded in the present moment. By providing reality orientation, healthcare providers can better understand the patient's current mental state and address any potential confusion or disorientation. This approach aids in establishing a therapeutic environment and enhances the patient's overall well-being. Choices A, C, and D do not capture the essence of reality orientation and its significance in maintaining the patient's mental clarity and connection to the present moment.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is preparing to assist with a lumbar epidural steroid injection (LESI) procedure for a patient with chronic back pain. What action should the nurse prioritize to ensure procedural accuracy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Confirming the patient's identity ensures the right patient is receiving the intended procedure. 2. Verifying the procedure site using two identifiers prevents errors in site selection. 3. This step aligns with the World Health Organization's Surgical Safety Checklist, reducing the risk of wrong-site procedures. 4. Positioning, sedation, and local anesthesia are important but secondary to ensuring the correct patient and site. Summary: - Option B: Positioning is essential but not the top priority for procedural accuracy. - Option C: Sedation aims to minimize discomfort but does not guarantee procedural accuracy. - Option D: Administering local anesthesia is crucial but not as critical as confirming patient identity and procedure site.
Question 9 of 9
A patient undergoing mechanical ventilation in the ICU develops acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's exacerbation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV). This intervention is prioritized as it helps improve oxygenation and ventilation in COPD exacerbation without the need for invasive mechanical ventilation, reducing the risk of ventilator-associated complications. NIPPV also decreases the work of breathing and can prevent the need for intubation. Administering bronchodilator medications (B) is important in COPD exacerbation but may not address the immediate need for ventilatory support. Endotracheal intubation (C) should be reserved for cases of respiratory failure not responding to NIPPV. Chest physiotherapy (D) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the first-line intervention for managing acute COPD exacerbation.