ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is conducting a nursing health history. Which component will the nurse address?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Patient expectations. During a nursing health history, the nurse focuses on gathering information about the patient's health concerns, medical history, lifestyle, and expectations for their care. Addressing patient expectations is crucial for providing patient-centered care and establishing a therapeutic relationship. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Nurse's concerns are not the primary focus of a nursing health history. C: Current treatment orders are important but are typically addressed during a physical assessment or when implementing care. D: Nurse's goals for the patient are important but should be developed in collaboration with the patient based on their needs and preferences.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is evaluating whether a patient’s turning schedule was effective in preventing the formation of pressure ulcers. Which finding indicates success of the turning schedule?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the absence of skin breakdown indicates that the turning schedule was effective in preventing pressure ulcers. Skin breakdown is a key indicator of pressure ulcer development, so its absence suggests that the patient's skin integrity was maintained. Choice A is incorrect because documentation alone does not guarantee successful prevention. Choice B is incorrect as redness on the heels can still indicate the early stages of pressure ulcers. Choice C is unrelated to skin integrity and pressure ulcer prevention.
Question 3 of 9
Olympic gymnast Ms. Slovenski sufferd a great fall and suffered a great fall and fractured her femur. Approximately after 20 hours in the hospital she became dyspneic, tachypneic, and with scattered crackles in her lung fields. She is coughing up large amounts of thick, white sputum. The nurse correctly interprets this as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: fat embolism syndrome related to femur fracture. Fat embolism syndrome occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream and travel to the lungs, causing respiratory distress. In this case, the patient's femur fracture likely led to fat embolism, explaining her dyspnea, tachypnea, crackles, and thick sputum. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the patient's presentation and history, making them incorrect. Choice A suggests smoke inhalation, which is not supported by the scenario. Choice B mentions pneumonia from bedrest, which is not a common complication of immobility. Choice D proposes hypovolemic shock from multiple trauma, which does not explain the respiratory symptoms and sputum production observed in the patient.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse adds the following diagnosis to a patient’s care plan: Constipation related to decreased gastrointestinal motility secondary to pain medication administration as evidenced by the patient reporting no bowel movement in seven days, abdominal distention, and abdominal pain. Which element did the nurse write as the defining characteristic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased gastrointestinal motility. This is the defining characteristic because it directly links the cause (pain medication administration) to the effect (constipation). The patient's lack of bowel movement, abdominal distention, and pain are all consequences of decreased gastrointestinal motility. Pain medication slows down the movement of the intestines, leading to constipation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while they are related to the patient's condition, they are not the defining characteristic that connects the cause to the effect in this specific scenario.
Question 5 of 9
As the nurse collects data on a patient, which of the following is a symptom that may be found that the patient with anaphylaxis may be experiencing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Wheezing. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can lead to airway constriction and difficulty breathing, resulting in wheezing. Wheezing is a common symptom of anaphylaxis due to bronchospasm and airway swelling. Dermatitis (A) is a skin reaction, sinusitis (B) is inflammation of the sinuses, and delirium (C) is a state of mental confusion, which are not typical symptoms of anaphylaxis. Wheezing is a critical symptom in anaphylaxis as it indicates potential airway compromise and the need for immediate medical intervention.
Question 6 of 9
One of the dangers of treating hypernatremia is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cerebral edema. Hypernatremia is an elevated sodium level in the blood, which can lead to osmotic shifts causing water to move out of cells, including brain cells. This can result in cerebral edema, potentially leading to neurological complications. Incorrect choices: A: Red blood cell crenation - This occurs in hypertonic solutions, not hypernatremia. C: Red blood cell hydrolysis - Hypernatremia doesn't directly cause red blood cell hydrolysis. D: Renal shutdown - Hypernatremia can stress the kidneys, but it doesn't typically lead to renal shutdown.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is conducting a nursing health history. Which component will the nurse address?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Patient expectations. In a nursing health history, the nurse focuses on understanding the patient's expectations, needs, and preferences to provide patient-centered care. This step is essential for building rapport, establishing trust, and tailoring care plans to meet the patient's individual needs. Incorrect choices: A: Nurse’s concerns - This is not the primary focus during a nursing health history. The nurse should prioritize understanding the patient's perspective. C: Current treatment orders - While important, this is typically addressed during the assessment phase, not specifically in the nursing health history. D: Nurse’s goals for the patient - The nurse's goals should align with the patient's goals, making understanding the patient's expectations crucial.
Question 8 of 9
When testing visual fields, the nurse is assessing which of the following parts of vision?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Peripheral vision. When testing visual fields, the nurse evaluates the ability to see objects outside the direct line of sight, which is indicative of peripheral vision. Peripheral vision helps detect objects and movement in the side vision. Distance vision (B) refers to the ability to see clearly at a distance, while near vision (C) pertains to close-up vision. Central vision (D) is essential for focusing on details and seeing straight ahead. Therefore, A is the correct choice as it specifically pertains to the assessment of visual fields.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the ff are the symptoms of basilar skull fracture? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Raccoon eyes. Basilar skull fracture can result in periorbital bruising, known as raccoon eyes, due to blood pooling in the soft tissues around the eyes. This occurs because the fracture involves the base of the skull near the orbits. Choice B: Amnesia is not a typical symptom of basilar skull fracture. Amnesia may occur in head injuries but is not specific to basilar skull fractures. Choice C: Halo sign is a term used to describe a ring of clear fluid surrounding a blood spot, typically seen in cases of a cerebrospinal fluid leak from the ear or nose, not specific to basilar skull fractures. Choice D: Paresthesia, which refers to abnormal sensations like tingling or numbness, is not a common symptom of basilar skull fractures. It is more associated with nerve damage rather than fractures involving the base of the skull.