ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Exam Practice Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is completing discharge teaching for a client who has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rotating the application sites of transdermal patches is important to prevent skin irritation and enhance absorption efficiency. This practice helps to minimize skin irritation and allows the skin to recover between applications. By rotating the sites weekly, the client can ensure optimal medication delivery and reduce the risk of skin reactions at any specific application site. This indicates that the client understands the importance of proper patch placement and skin care.
Question 2 of 5
The client tells the nurse that her symptoms have become worse since she has been using oxymetazoline (Afrin) for nasal congestion. What is the best assessment question for the nurse to ask?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oxymetazoline, a nasal decongestant, can cause rebound congestion (rhinitis medicamentosa) if used beyond 3-5 days, worsening symptoms due to vascular dependence. The best assessment question is how long the client has used it, as prolonged use is the likely culprit, guiding the nurse to educate on discontinuation or seek medical advice. The bottle's age might affect potency but isn't the primary concern for worsening symptoms. Temperature checks for infection, a secondary issue here. Other inhaled medications could interact but don't directly explain rebound effects. The nurse prioritizes duration to pinpoint misuse, a common issue with topical decongestants, making choice D critical for accurate assessment and intervention.
Question 3 of 5
Which one of the following antipsychotics has been shown to be a partial agonist at the dopamine D2 receptor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aripiprazole, a third-generation antipsychotic, acts as a partial agonist at D2 receptors, stabilizing dopamine activity: it activates receptors in low-dopamine states (e.g., negative symptoms) and competes with excess dopamine (e.g., psychosis), reducing side effects like EPS. Clozapine, a second-generation drug, has weak D2 affinity, targeting 5HT2 and other receptors. Haloperidol, a first-generation antipsychotic, is a D2 antagonist. Risperidone and thioridazine block D2 fully, not partially. Aripiprazole's unique partial agonism, confirmed by pharmacological data, balances efficacy and tolerability, distinguishing it in schizophrenia treatment.
Question 4 of 5
A patient was admitted to the emergency department with a pulse oximeter reading of 85% after a successful prehospital resuscitation from cardiac arrest due to an asthma attack. What is the most important initial drug to administer as ordered?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Oxygen is the most important initial intervention for a patient with a low pulse oximeter reading (85%) to correct hypoxia and prevent further complications. While epinephrine (A) and albuterol (C) are used to treat asthma, oxygen is the priority to address the immediate hypoxia. Sodium bicarbonate (B) is not indicated unless there is severe metabolic acidosis.
Question 5 of 5
Drugs can cause adverse events in a patient. Bone marrow toxicity is one of the most frequent types of drug-induced toxicity. The most serious form of bone marrow toxicity is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aplastic anemia is the most severe form of bone marrow toxicity, characterized by pancytopenia and bone marrow failure. It can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytosis, leukocytosis, and granulocytosis are not typically associated with drug-induced bone marrow toxicity.