ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment. Which findings will the nurse report as subjective data? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because subjective data refers to information provided by the patient based on their feelings, perceptions, and experiences. In this case, the patient describing excitement about discharge is subjective data as it reflects the patient's emotional state. The other choices, A, B, and D, are considered objective data because they are observable and measurable by the nurse. The patient's temperature can be measured (A), the wound appearance can be visually assessed (B), and the patient pacing the floor is an observable behavior (D). Therefore, these choices are not subjective data.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse use to document a finding that the patient’s ear is draining?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Otorrhea. Otorrhea refers to the discharge of fluid from the ear, indicating an abnormal finding of ear drainage. This term specifically describes the symptom of ear drainage, making it the most appropriate choice for documenting this finding. Otalgia (choice B) refers to ear pain, ototoxic (choice C) refers to substances that are harmful to the ear, and tinnitus (choice D) refers to ringing in the ears, none of which accurately describe ear drainage. Therefore, the correct choice is A as it specifically addresses the symptom of ear drainage.
Question 3 of 9
Victorio is being managed for diarrhea. Which outcome indictes that fluid resuscitation is successful?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because firm skin turgor indicates adequate hydration, a key goal of fluid resuscitation in diarrhea management. Firm skin turgor reflects the body's fluid balance and hydration status. When fluid resuscitation is successful, the patient's skin turgor improves due to replenished fluid levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly assess hydration status or the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation. Passing formed stools, decrease in stool frequency, and absence of perianal burning may be positive outcomes in diarrhea management, but they do not specifically indicate successful fluid resuscitation.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client after thyroidectomy for Grave’s disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Patients with Grave's disease who undergo thyroidectomy require regular follow-up care for monitoring thyroid hormone levels and overall health. Step 2: Regular follow-up care ensures early detection of any complications or recurrence of the disease. Step 3: Monitoring helps in adjusting medication doses and managing any potential side effects. Step 4: Choice A is important but not specific to thyroidectomy for Grave's disease. Choice B is not typically used post-thyroidectomy. Choice D may be beneficial but not a priority compared to regular follow-up care.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following parts of neuron transmits impulses away from the cell body?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Axon. The axon is the part of the neuron that transmits impulses away from the cell body towards other neurons or target cells. It is coated with a myelin sheath, which helps speed up the transmission of impulses. Dendrites (A) receive signals from other neurons, the neurolemma (B) is the outermost layer of the myelin sheath, and the synapse (D) is the junction between two neurons where neurotransmitters are released. Therefore, the axon is the only part of the neuron specifically responsible for transmitting impulses away from the cell body.
Question 6 of 9
A client with allergic rhinitis is prescribed loratadine (Claritin). On a follow-up visit, the client tells the nurse, “I take one 10-mg of Claritin with a glass of water two times daily”. The nurse concludes that the client requires additional teaching about this medication because:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Loratadine is typically dosed once daily, not twice daily, for allergic rhinitis. 2. Taking it twice daily may increase the risk of side effects without added benefit. 3. The client's dosing schedule reflects a misunderstanding of the medication regimen. 4. Option A is incorrect because loratadine is available in 10mg tablets. 5. Option B is incorrect as loratadine can be taken with or without food. 6. Option D is incorrect as Claritin is a common trade name for loratadine.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse recognizes that the major early problem for Mr. Gabatan will be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bladder control. This is the major early problem for Mr. Gabatan because urinary retention is a common complication post-surgery, especially for older males like him. Bladder control is essential for preventing urinary tract infections and maintaining overall health. Quadriceps setting (B) and client education (C) are important but not as critical early on. Use of aids for ambulation (D) is important but not the major early problem compared to bladder control in this case.
Question 8 of 9
While obtaining a health history, the nurse learns that the client is allergic to bee stings. When obtaining the client’s medication history, the nurse should determine if the client keeps which medication on hand?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A: Diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl) is an antihistamine commonly used to treat allergic reactions, including those from bee stings. It can help alleviate symptoms like itching and swelling. Keeping Benadryl on hand is crucial for managing an allergic reaction promptly. Other Choices: B: Guaifenesin (Robitussin) is an expectorant used to treat coughs, not allergic reactions. C: Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride (Sudafed) is a decongestant used for nasal congestion, not allergic reactions. D: Loperamide (Imodium) is an antidiarrheal used to treat diarrhea, not allergic reactions.
Question 9 of 9
A patient who is being tested for HIV asks what tests are used. The nurse would correct in stating that the tests used to confirm HIV infection are which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ELISA and Western Blot. The rationale is as follows: ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) and Western Blot are specific tests used to confirm HIV infection by detecting antibodies or antigens related to the virus. ELISA is the initial screening test, while Western Blot is the confirmatory test. These tests are highly sensitive and specific for HIV detection. Choice A is incorrect because CD4+ cell count and thymus function are not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are used to monitor disease progression and immune function in HIV-positive individuals. Choice C is incorrect because B-cell and T-cell count are also not tests used to confirm HIV infection. They are indicators of immune system health but not specific for HIV diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because while CD4+ and viral load tests are used in monitoring HIV progression, ELISA is the main confirmatory test for HIV diagnosis, and viral load is not typically used for initial