ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Free Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is completing an assessment. Which findings will the nurse report as subjective data? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because subjective data refers to information provided by the patient based on their feelings, perceptions, and experiences. In this case, the patient describing excitement about discharge is subjective data as it reflects the patient's emotional state. The other choices, A, B, and D, are considered objective data because they are observable and measurable by the nurse. The patient's temperature can be measured (A), the wound appearance can be visually assessed (B), and the patient pacing the floor is an observable behavior (D). Therefore, these choices are not subjective data.
Question 2 of 9
Before a cancer receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) resumes a normal diet, the nurse teaches him about dietary sources of minerals. Which foods are good sources of zinc?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Whole grains and meats. Zinc is found in high amounts in these foods. Meats, especially red meats and seafood, are rich sources of zinc. Whole grains like wheat, rice, and oats also contain significant amounts of zinc. Other choices are incorrect because fruits and vegetables are not typically good sources of zinc. Yeast and legumes are good sources of other minerals but not specifically zinc. It is important for the cancer patient to consume zinc-rich foods to support their immune system and overall health during recovery.
Question 3 of 9
There seems to be a positive correlation between type 2 diabetes mellitus and:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obesity. Obesity is a well-established risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes mellitus due to the increased resistance of body cells to insulin. This leads to elevated blood sugar levels. Hypotension (A) is low blood pressure and is not typically associated with type 2 diabetes. Kidney dysfunction (C) is a complication of diabetes but not a direct correlation. Sex (D) does not have a direct link to the development of type 2 diabetes. Therefore, the most likely correlation is with obesity due to its impact on insulin resistance.
Question 4 of 9
A patient teaching plan should include which of the ff. lifestyle modifications to help control hypertension?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Regular aerobic exercise helps lower blood pressure by improving heart health and circulation. Step 2: Exercise reduces stress and promotes weight loss, factors that contribute to hypertension control. Step 3: Alcohol consumption can raise blood pressure and should be limited or avoided. Step 4: Smoking and using low-tar cigarettes can still raise blood pressure and have other negative health effects. Step 5: Daily multivitamin supplements do not directly impact blood pressure control.
Question 5 of 9
What deficits would the nurse expect in a right-handed person experiencing a stroke affecting the left side of the cortex?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Expressive aphasia and paralysis on the right side of the body. In a right-handed person, the left side of the brain controls language and right-sided motor function. A stroke affecting the left side of the cortex would lead to expressive aphasia due to damage to Broca's area, causing difficulty in speaking and forming words. Paralysis on the right side of the body would result from damage to the motor cortex in the left hemisphere. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical deficits seen in a person with a stroke affecting the left side of the cortex in a right-handed individual.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following questions or statements would be an appropriate termination of the health history interview?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it encourages the patient to share any additional information they may have forgotten or overlooked, ensuring a thorough health history interview. Choice A is incorrect as it implies the interviewer is unprepared or disinterested. Choice C is inappropriate as it may make the patient feel guilty or inadequate. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the possibility of gathering more relevant information from the patient.
Question 7 of 9
A client agreed to become an organ donor is pronounced dead. What is the most important factor in selecting a transplant recipient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Compatible blood and tissue types. This is crucial to minimize the risk of rejection and ensure a successful transplant. Matching blood and tissue types help prevent the recipient's immune system from attacking the new organ. Blood relationship (A) is not as important as compatibility. Sex and size (C) are important considerations for certain transplants but not the most crucial factor. Need (D) is relevant but does not outweigh the importance of compatibility to ensure a successful transplant.
Question 8 of 9
When caring for a client diagnosed with a brain tumor of the parietal lobe, the nurse expects to assess:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tactile agnosia. When assessing a client with a parietal lobe brain tumor, the nurse would expect to assess for tactile agnosia as the parietal lobe is responsible for processing sensory information, including touch and spatial awareness. Tactile agnosia is the inability to recognize objects by touch. This impairment is commonly associated with parietal lobe lesions. Short-term memory impairment (A) is more commonly associated with temporal lobe lesions. Seizures (B) are more commonly associated with frontal lobe lesions. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia (D) is associated with occipital lobe lesions. In summary, the parietal lobe tumor would likely manifest as tactile agnosia due to its role in sensory processing, making it the most relevant assessment finding in this scenario.
Question 9 of 9
While obtaining a health history, the nurse learns that the client is allergic to bee stings. When obtaining the client’s medication history, the nurse should determine if the client keeps which medication on hand?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A: Diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl) is an antihistamine commonly used to treat allergic reactions, including those from bee stings. It can help alleviate symptoms like itching and swelling. Keeping Benadryl on hand is crucial for managing an allergic reaction promptly. Other Choices: B: Guaifenesin (Robitussin) is an expectorant used to treat coughs, not allergic reactions. C: Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride (Sudafed) is a decongestant used for nasal congestion, not allergic reactions. D: Loperamide (Imodium) is an antidiarrheal used to treat diarrhea, not allergic reactions.