ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is completing a nutritional status of a patient who has been admitted with AIDS-related complications. What components should the nurse include in this assessment? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level. Serum albumin is an important indicator of nutritional status, as low levels may indicate malnutrition or inflammation commonly seen in AIDS patients. Weight history (B) is also relevant as weight changes can reflect nutritional status. White blood cell count (C) is not directly related to nutritional status. Body mass index (D) is a calculation based on weight and height, not a direct measure of nutritional status. Blood urea nitrogen (E) is a measure of kidney function, not a specific indicator of nutritional status. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on assessing the patient's serum albumin level for nutritional status evaluation in this case.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with severe environmental allergies is scheduled for an immunotherapy injection. What should be included in teaching the patient about this treatment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Immunotherapy injections can cause allergic reactions. Step 2: Monitoring post-injection is crucial to detect and manage any potential adverse reactions promptly. Step 3: Staying in the clinic for 30 minutes allows for immediate intervention if needed. Step 4: This ensures patient safety and reduces the risk of severe reactions. Summary: A: Epinephrine is not typically given before immunotherapy injections. C: Therapeutic response may take longer than 3 months to show. D: Immunotherapy is usually given via subcutaneous route, not intravenous.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with HIV has a nursing diagnosis of Risk for Impaired Skin Integrity. What nursing intervention best addresses this risk?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Utilize a pressure-reducing mattress. This intervention is crucial for preventing pressure ulcers in patients at risk for impaired skin integrity, such as those with HIV. By redistributing pressure, a pressure-reducing mattress helps to alleviate pressure on vulnerable areas, reducing the risk of skin breakdown. Limiting physical activity (B) can lead to muscle atrophy and worsen skin integrity. Applying antibiotic ointment (C) may not address the root cause of skin breakdown. Avoiding synthetic fabrics (D) may be helpful in some cases, but it is not as effective as using a pressure-reducing mattress.
Question 4 of 9
A 56-year-old patient has come to the clinic for his routine eye examination and is told he needs bifocals. The patient asks the nurse what change in his eyes has caused his need for bifocals. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it accurately explains the physiological change in the eye that leads to the need for bifocals. As individuals age, there is a gradual thickening of the lens of the eye, which affects the eye's ability to accommodate for near vision. This thickening makes it harder for the eye to focus on close objects, necessitating the use of bifocals to correct this near vision issue. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide a scientifically accurate explanation for the need for bifocals in older individuals. Option A is dismissive and does not address the specific change in the eye that leads to the need for bifocals. Option B implies aging as a general concept without specifying the relevant change in the eye. Option D incorrectly states that the eye gets shorter as we age, which is not the reason for needing bifocals.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with mastoiditis is admitted to the post-surgical unit after undergoing a radical mastoidectomy. The nurse should identify what priority of postoperative care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assessing for mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze. After a radical mastoidectomy, the nurse should prioritize assessing for signs of facial nerve damage, such as mouth droop and decreased lateral eye gaze, which can indicate injury to the facial nerve during surgery. This is crucial as immediate intervention may be needed to prevent long-term complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Assessing for increased middle ear pressure and perforated ear drum is not the priority postoperative care for a radical mastoidectomy patient. C: Assessing for gradual onset of conductive hearing loss and nystagmus is not the priority as these are not immediate concerns postoperatively. D: Assessing for scar tissue and cerumen obstructing the auditory canal is not the priority as these are not immediate postoperative complications that require urgent attention.
Question 6 of 9
In determining malnourishment in a patient, which assessment finding is consistent with this disorder?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Malnourishment often leads to iron deficiency anemia, causing spoon-shaped nails (koilonychia). Step 2: Koilonychia is a classic sign of chronic malnutrition and iron deficiency. Step 3: Moist lips (A) and pink conjunctivae (B) are not specific to malnourishment. Step 4: Not easily plucked hair (D) is more related to hair health rather than malnutrition.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse obtained a telephone order from a primarycare provider for a patient in pain. Which chart entry should the nurse document?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it includes all necessary components for a complete and accurate chart entry. The nurse documents the date and time of the order, the medication prescribed (Morphine, 2 mg, IV every 4 hours), the indication for use (incisional pain), the intended recipient (Dr. Day), the nurse's name (J. Winds), and confirmation of the read-back procedure. This entry ensures clarity, accountability, and proper communication among healthcare team members. Choice A is incorrect because it misses the recipient of the order (Dr. Day) and only includes the nurse's name in the read-back. Choice B is incorrect because it lacks the recipient of the order and the confirmation of the read-back procedure with the primary care provider. Choice D is incorrect because it does not specify the primary care provider who gave the order and misses the read-back confirmation with the provider.
Question 8 of 9
The hospice nurse is caring for a patient with cancer in her home. The nurse has explained to the patient and the family that the patient is at risk for hypercalcemia and has educated them on that signs and symptoms of this health problem. What else should the nurse teach this patient and family to do to reduce the patients risk of hypercalcemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Option C is correct because adequate hydration helps prevent hypercalcemia by promoting the excretion of excess calcium in the urine. This reduces the risk of calcium buildup in the blood. Consuming 2 to 4 liters of fluid daily ensures proper hydration, which is crucial for patients at risk for hypercalcemia. Stool softeners (Option A) are not contraindicated and can help prevent constipation, which may be a side effect of some cancer treatments. Laxatives (Option B) should not be taken daily as they can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Restricting calcium intake (Option D) is not the primary intervention for preventing hypercalcemia; rather, maintaining adequate hydration is key.
Question 9 of 9
A patient presents to the ED complaining of a sudden onset of incapacitating vertigo, with nausea and vomiting and tinnitus. The patient mentions to the nurse that she suddenly cannot hear very well. What would the nurse suspect the patients diagnosis will be?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Labyrinthitis. This condition presents with sudden onset vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and hearing loss, which are all symptoms described by the patient. Labyrinthitis is commonly caused by a viral infection affecting the inner ear, leading to inflammation of the labyrinth. This inflammation disrupts the balance and hearing functions of the inner ear, resulting in the symptoms mentioned. A: Ossiculitis involves inflammation of the middle ear bones, typically causing conductive hearing loss, not the sudden onset of vertigo and other symptoms described. B: Mnire's disease is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss, but it typically does not present with sudden onset incapacitating vertigo. C: Ototoxicity is caused by exposure to certain medications or chemicals that damage the inner ear structures, leading to hearing loss. While hearing loss is a symptom, the sudden onset of vertigo is not typically associated with ototoxicity.