ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is checking orders. Which order shouldthe nurse question?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because giving a hypertonic solution enema to a patient with fluid volume excess can worsen the condition by drawing more fluid into the colon. This can lead to further fluid volume overload and electrolyte imbalances. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Normal saline enema is appropriate for constipation. C: Kayexalate enema is used to treat hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. D: Oil retention enema is indicated for constipation to soften stool.
Question 2 of 9
A 60-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining that his breasts are tender and enlarging. The patient is subsequently diagnosed with gynecomastia. The patient should be assessed for the possibility of what causative factor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medication adverse effects. Gynecomastia in a 60-year-old man is often caused by medications like spironolactone, cimetidine, and certain antipsychotics. To determine the causative factor, a thorough medication history review is crucial. Age-related physiologic changes (choice A) do not typically lead to gynecomastia in men. Poor nutrition (choice C) and fluid overload (choice D) are not common causes of gynecomastia in this context.
Question 3 of 9
Which piece of data will the nurse use for “B” when using SBAR?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse will use the history of angina for "B" when using SBAR because it provides relevant background information about the patient's cardiac condition. This helps the nurse understand the context of the current situation and make appropriate decisions. Pulse rate of 108 (choice B) is a specific vital sign and not an appropriate choice for "B" in SBAR. Having chest pain (choice A) is important but does not provide the necessary background information like the history of angina does. Oxygen being needed (choice D) is a current intervention and not relevant for "B" in SBAR, which focuses on providing background information.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse practitioner is assessing a 55-year-old male patient who is complaining of perineal discomfort, burning, urgency, and frequency with urination. The patient states that he has pain with ejaculation. The nurse knows that the patient is exhibiting symptoms of what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prostatitis. The patient's symptoms of perineal discomfort, burning, urgency, frequency with urination, and pain with ejaculation are indicative of prostatitis. Prostatitis is inflammation of the prostate gland, leading to these symptoms. Varicocele (A) is an enlargement of the veins within the scrotum, usually painless. Epididymitis (B) is inflammation of the epididymis, causing scrotal pain and swelling. Hydrocele (D) is a fluid-filled sac around the testicle, typically painless. The patient's symptoms align most closely with prostatitis due to the involvement of the prostate gland and the specific urinary and ejaculatory symptoms experienced.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is preparing to lavage a patient in theemergency department for an overdose. Which tube should the nurse obtain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ewald tube. This tube is used for gastric lavage due to its large diameter and open end which allows for effective suction of gastric contents. The Ewald tube is specifically designed for gastric lavage and is ideal for removing toxins from the stomach. Summary of why the other choices are incorrect: B: Dobhoff tube is a small-bore feeding tube, not suitable for gastric lavage. C: Miller-Abbott tube is used for intestinal decompression, not gastric lavage. D: Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used for esophageal varices, not gastric lavage.
Question 6 of 9
A patient comes to the ophthalmology clinic for an eye examination. The patient tells the nurse that he often sees floaters in his vision. How should the nurse best interpret this subjective assessment finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because floaters are commonly caused by age-related changes in the vitreous humor of the eye, such as the formation of tiny fibers or clumps. These floaters are typically harmless and not a cause for concern. Choice B is incorrect because glasses do not affect floaters in the eye. Choice C is incorrect because floaters are not a primary symptom of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because weakened ciliary muscles are not typically associated with floaters. Therefore, the most appropriate interpretation is that seeing floaters is a normal aging process of the eye.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is performing an initial assessment of an older adult resident who has just relocated to the long-term care facility. During the nurses interview with the patient, she admits that she drinks around 20 ounces of vodka every evening. What types of cancer does this put her at risk for? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Esophageal cancer. Alcohol consumption is a known risk factor for developing esophageal cancer. Ethanol, a component of alcohol, can damage the cells lining the esophagus and lead to the development of cancer over time. Incorrect choices: A: Malignant melanoma - Alcohol consumption is not directly linked to the development of malignant melanoma, a type of skin cancer. B: Brain cancer - There is no strong evidence linking alcohol consumption to an increased risk of brain cancer. C: Breast cancer - While excessive alcohol consumption is a risk factor for breast cancer, the primary association is with esophageal cancer in this case. E: Liver cancer - While alcohol abuse can lead to liver damage and increase the risk of liver cancer, the question specifies the types of cancer the patient is at risk for due to alcohol consumption, not the general risks associated with alcohol abuse.
Question 8 of 9
A laboratory finding indicatiNveU oRf SDIICN iGs oTnBe .thCatO sMhows
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: decreased fibrinogen. In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), there is widespread activation of coagulation leading to consumption of clotting factors like fibrinogen, resulting in decreased levels. Platelets are usually decreased, not increased, in DIC. Hematocrit may be elevated due to hemoconcentration but not directly related to DIC. Thromboplastin time would be prolonged, not decreased, in DIC due to consumption of clotting factors.
Question 9 of 9
The rate of obesity in the United States has reached epidemic proportions. Morbidity and mortality for both the mother and baby are increased in these circumstances. The nurse caring for the patient with an elevated BMI should be cognizant of these potential complications and plan care accordingly. Significant risks include (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breech presentation. Obesity can lead to a larger fetus, increasing the risk of breech presentation. The rationale is that excess fat can hinder the baby's ability to turn head down. Other choices are incorrect because: B: Ectopic pregnancy is not related to obesity, C: Birth defects can be influenced by maternal health but are not directly linked to obesity, and D: Venous thromboembolism is more associated with immobility and hypercoagulable states rather than obesity.