ATI RN
Med Surg Cardiovascular Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for an infant with tetralogy of Fallot. Which drug should the nurse anticipate administering during a tet spell?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Meperidine (Demerol). During a tet spell in tetralogy of Fallot, there is a sudden decrease in pulmonary blood flow leading to cyanosis and hypoxia. Meperidine is a vasodilator and helps increase pulmonary blood flow, improving oxygenation. Propranolol (A) is a beta-blocker and can worsen cyanosis by decreasing cardiac output. Morphine (B) can depress the respiratory system and exacerbate hypoxia. Furosemide (D) is a diuretic and does not address the acute decrease in pulmonary blood flow seen in a tet spell.
Question 2 of 5
In coordinating care for a client with venous stasis ulcers, the nurse explains to unlicensed assistive personnel that which of the following is the most important intervention in ulcer healing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevation of the extremities to increase venous return. Elevating the extremities helps reduce edema and improve venous return, promoting healing of venous stasis ulcers. This intervention aids in reducing venous pressure, preventing pooling of blood, and promoting circulation. Surgical debridement (A) may be necessary in some cases but is not the most important intervention for healing. Meticulous cleaning (B) is important to prevent infection but does not directly promote healing. Leg exercises (C) can help improve circulation but may not be as crucial as elevating the extremities in the context of venous stasis ulcers.
Question 3 of 5
A patient is admitted to your telemetry unit with chest pain that has been increasing in intensity and duration. The critical care nurse can identify that this type of angina is called
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Unstable angina. Unstable angina is characterized by chest pain that is increasing in intensity and duration, indicating an imminent heart attack. This type of angina is considered a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Stable angina (choice A) is chest pain that occurs predictably with exertion and resolves with rest. Variant angina (choice B) is caused by coronary artery spasm and is typically relieved by medication. Predictable angina (choice C) is not a recognized term in cardiology. Therefore, the critical care nurse should identify the patient's symptoms as consistent with unstable angina due to the escalating nature of the chest pain.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is measuring a waveform of the ECG strip and determines it is normally around 06 to 1 the waveform s/he is measuring is the
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: P wave. The P wave represents atrial depolarization in an ECG strip, typically measuring around 0.06 to 0.1 seconds. This is the first wave in the ECG waveform sequence. The PRI (B) measures the time from the start of the P wave to the start of the QRS complex, the QRS complex (C) represents ventricular depolarization, and the QT interval (D) measures the time from the start of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. Therefore, the P wave is the most fitting choice based on the given information.
Question 5 of 5
ACE inhibitors correct heart failure by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reducing afterload. ACE inhibitors reduce afterload by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and decreased systemic vascular resistance. This reduces the workload on the heart, improves cardiac output, and helps in managing heart failure. A, increasing preload, would worsen heart failure by increasing the volume of blood returning to the heart. B, causing vasoconstriction, is incorrect as ACE inhibitors actually cause vasodilation. C, increasing afterload, would also worsen heart failure by increasing the resistance the heart must pump against.