A nurse is caring for an infant with tetralogy of Fallot. Which drug should the nurse anticipate administering during a tet spell?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: During a tet spell in tetralogy of Fallot, there is a sudden decrease in pulmonary blood flow, leading to cyanosis and hypoxia. Meperidine (Demerol) is the drug of choice due to its rapid onset and ability to increase systemic vascular resistance, improving blood flow to the lungs. Propranolol (A) may worsen the cyanosis by decreasing pulmonary blood flow. Morphine (B) and Furosemide (D) do not address the underlying problem of decreased pulmonary blood flow and are not indicated during a tet spell.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Elevation of the extremities promotes venous return, reducing swelling and improving blood flow to aid in ulcer healing. This intervention is crucial in managing venous stasis ulcers. Surgical debridement (A) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the most important intervention. Meticulous cleaning (B) is important for wound care but not the most crucial for healing. Leg exercises (C) can help improve circulation but do not directly address venous stasis as effectively as elevation.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Unstable angina. This type of angina is characterized by chest pain that is increasing in intensity and duration, indicating a higher risk of a heart attack. Unstable angina is considered a medical emergency requiring immediate attention. A: Stable angina refers to chest pain that occurs with exertion and resolves with rest. B: Variant angina, also known as Prinzmetal's angina, is caused by coronary artery spasm and often occurs at rest. C: Predictable angina refers to chest pain that occurs predictably with certain activities or triggers and is relieved with rest or medication. In summary, D is the correct answer because the patient's symptoms of increasing chest pain intensity and duration suggest unstable angina, which requires urgent medical intervention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: P wave. The P wave represents atrial depolarization in an ECG waveform, typically lasting around 0.06 to 0.1 seconds. A nurse measuring this waveform within this time range indicates the measurement aligns with the characteristics of a P wave. The PRI (choice B) represents the time from the beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex, usually around 0.12 to 0.2 seconds. The QRS complex (choice C) represents ventricular depolarization, typically lasting around 0.06 to 0.1 seconds. The QT interval (choice D) represents the time from the start of the Q wave to the end of the T wave, which varies but is generally around 0.36 to 0.44 seconds. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the description provided in the question.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reducing afterload. ACE inhibitors reduce afterload by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to vasodilation and decreased peripheral resistance. This results in reduced workload on the heart, improved cardiac output, and overall improvement in heart failure symptoms. Option A is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not increase preload. Option B is incorrect as ACE inhibitors cause vasodilation, not vasoconstriction. Option C is incorrect as ACE inhibitors actually reduce afterload, rather than increasing it.