ATI RN
advanced health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with pneumonia. The nurse should prioritize which of the following assessments?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxygen saturation levels. This assessment is crucial in pneumonia to ensure adequate oxygenation. Low oxygen levels can lead to respiratory distress. Pain levels (B) are important but not a priority over oxygenation. Bowel sounds (C) are not directly related to pneumonia. Level of consciousness (D) is also important but not as critical as ensuring proper oxygen levels for a patient with pneumonia. Oxygen saturation levels should be prioritized to prevent complications and ensure the patient's respiratory status is stable.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who is post-operative following abdominal surgery. The nurse should encourage the patient to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Post-operative patients are at risk for developing pneumonia due to decreased lung expansion and secretion retention. Step 2: Deep breathing exercises help improve lung expansion and prevent pneumonia. Step 3: Therefore, encouraging the patient to perform deep breathing exercises is essential. Summary: - A: Avoiding deep breathing exercises is incorrect as it can lead to respiratory complications. - B: Taking shallow breaths can worsen lung function and increase the risk of pneumonia. - D: Limiting mobility can lead to complications like blood clots and pneumonia.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with diabetes about insulin administration. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates proper understanding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: I will rotate injection sites to avoid tissue damage. This statement indicates proper understanding because rotating injection sites helps prevent tissue damage and ensures consistent absorption. Injecting into the same spot every time can lead to lipohypertrophy. Injecting insulin only when blood glucose is elevated is incorrect as insulin is needed regularly. Injecting into the arm for faster absorption is also incorrect, as it can lead to unpredictable absorption rates. Rotation of sites is crucial for optimal insulin absorption and to prevent complications.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is planning to assess new memory with a patient. The best way to do this would be to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Give him the Four Unrelated Words Test. This is the best way to assess new memory because it is a standardized test specifically designed to evaluate a patient's ability to form new memories. The test involves presenting the patient with four unrelated words and then asking them to recall those words after a delay. This test is reliable, valid, and widely used in clinical settings to assess new memory formation. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Administering the FACT test is not the best way to assess new memory as it is not specifically designed for this purpose. B: Asking the patient to describe his first job does not directly evaluate new memory formation and may not provide a standardized assessment. D: Asking the patient to describe the last TV show he watched does not focus on new memory and is not a standardized way to assess memory function.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with acute pancreatitis. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypotension and tachycardia. In acute pancreatitis, complications like hypovolemic shock can lead to hypotension and tachycardia due to fluid shifts and inflammation. Decreased urine output and increased thirst (A) may indicate dehydration but are not specific to pancreatitis. Increased blood pressure and heart rate (B) are not typical signs of complications in pancreatitis. Tachypnea and cyanosis (D) suggest respiratory distress, which is not a common complication of pancreatitis.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following statements is an example of flight of ideas?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it demonstrates a rapid succession of loosely associated thoughts, typical of flight of ideas. The statement transitions from discussing a pill to the color red, then red velvet, and finally to a baby's bottom. This rapid and disjointed flow of thoughts is characteristic of flight of ideas, a symptom commonly seen in manic episodes of bipolar disorder. Choices A, B, and D do not exhibit the same level of rapid and tangential thoughts as choice C, making them incorrect.
Question 7 of 9
A man has come in to the clinic because he is afraid he might have skin cancer. During the skin assessment, the nurse notices several areas of pigmentation that look greasy, dark, and "stuck on' on his skin. Which of the following is the best prediction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: He probably has seborrheic keratosis, which do not become cancerous. Seborrheic keratosis typically appear as greasy, dark, and "stuck on" pigmented growths on the skin, commonly seen in older adults. They are benign and do not progress to skin cancer. This conclusion is based on the characteristics of seborrheic keratosis and the fact that they are not associated with malignancy. Choice A (senile lentigines) is incorrect because although they are also common in older adults, they are flat and dark spots rather than raised growths. Choice B (actinic keratoses) is incorrect as they are precancerous lesions related to sun exposure, leading to a risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma, not basal cell carcinoma. Choice C (acrochordons) are skin tags and not precursors to squamous cell carcinoma.
Question 8 of 9
When examining a patient, the nurse can assess mental health by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because observing the patient and inferring health or dysfunction allows the nurse to assess mental health holistically. This method considers various factors such as behavior, emotions, communication, and overall functioning. It provides a comprehensive view of the patient's mental well-being. A: Examining the patient's electroencephalogram is more related to brain activity rather than mental health assessment. B: Observing the patient as he or she performs an IQ test is limited to cognitive abilities and does not capture the full spectrum of mental health. D: Examining the patient's response to a specific set of questions may not provide a complete picture of mental health as it focuses on specific aspects rather than overall assessment.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is the best indicator of a patient's nutritional status?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum albumin levels. Serum albumin is a protein produced by the liver and is a key indicator of a patient's nutritional status. Low levels of serum albumin indicate malnutrition or protein deficiency. Monitoring serum albumin levels provides an objective measure of the patient's overall nutritional status. Choice A (Patient's weight) can be influenced by factors other than nutrition, such as fluid retention or muscle mass. Choice C (Patient's food preferences) does not provide direct information on the patient's actual nutritional intake. Choice D (Number of meals consumed per day) does not account for the quality or quantity of nutrients consumed in those meals.