A nurse is caring for a patient with hypertension. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Hypertension can lead to various complications affecting the heart, kidneys, and brain. Monitoring for heart failure is crucial due to the increased workload on the heart. Chronic kidney disease is a common complication of hypertension, as the kidneys are sensitive to changes in blood pressure. Stroke is another significant risk due to the potential damage to blood vessels in the brain. Therefore, monitoring for all these complications is essential in managing a patient with hypertension. Other choices are incorrect as they do not encompass all possible complications of hypertension.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate and dyspnea. After a lung resection, complications like atelectasis or pneumonia can occur, leading to respiratory distress. Monitoring respiratory rate and dyspnea helps detect these issues early. Incorrect choices: B: Constipation and abdominal distension are not directly related to post-operative lung resection complications. C: Nausea and vomiting are more likely related to gastrointestinal issues rather than lung resection. D: Muscle weakness and fatigue are not specific signs of complications following a lung resection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antibiotics. Antibiotics are crucial in treating sepsis as they help to fight the underlying infection causing the condition. Administering antibiotics promptly can prevent the infection from spreading and worsening. Fluids (choices B and C) are important for treating sepsis to maintain blood pressure and support organ function, but antibiotics are the primary intervention to target the infection. Administering oxygen (choice D) may be necessary to support respiratory function in septic patients, but it is not the most effective action to address the underlying infection.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lupus. Lupus can affect the kidneys, leading to renal impairment. Renal impairment can decrease the body's ability to excrete ammonia, resulting in elevated levels. Renal failure (choice A) can also lead to elevated ammonia levels, but lupus specifically contributes to renal issues. Cirrhosis (choice B) primarily affects the liver, not kidneys. Psoriasis (choice C) is a skin condition and does not directly impact ammonia levels.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Head to toe. This assessment framework allows for modesty by assessing one body part at a time, starting from the head down to the toe. This approach ensures clients, especially teenage girls, feel comfortable and respected during the assessment process. Other choices like A (Body systems) involve assessing multiple body parts simultaneously, potentially compromising modesty. Functional assessment (B) focuses on assessing specific functions rather than individual body parts, which may not address the modesty concern. Focused assessment (C) targets a specific area of concern, which may not provide a comprehensive evaluation while also potentially overlooking modesty concerns.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the clothing of a trauma client could potentially be considered evidence with legal implications. Preserving the bloodstains or tears on the clothing maintains the integrity of the evidence for forensic investigation or legal proceedings. Disrupting the bloodstains or tears could compromise the evidence and hinder any potential investigation or legal case. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the primary concern in this scenario is the legal implications and preservation of evidence, not ownership, repair, salvage, or minimizing trauma to family members.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client with renal disease must avoid foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, as the kidneys are unable to properly filter and excrete potassium. Foods high in potassium can lead to dangerous levels of potassium in the blood, which can be life-threatening for individuals with renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because a client receiving diuretic therapy may actually need to increase their potassium intake due to the potassium-wasting effects of diuretics. Choice B is incorrect as having an ileostomy does not necessarily affect potassium levels. Choice C is incorrect because clients with metabolic alkalosis may actually benefit from consuming foods high in potassium to help correct the acid-base imbalance.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client suspected of having a stroke is to perform a CT scan (Choice B). This is because a CT scan can quickly identify the type of stroke (ischemic or hemorrhagic) and guide treatment decisions. Monitoring neurological status (Choice A) can be important but does not provide a definitive diagnosis. Administering fibrinolytics (Choice C) should only be done after confirming the type of stroke to avoid complications. Performing an MRI (Choice D) is more time-consuming and may not be feasible in the acute setting where quick intervention is crucial. Therefore, a CT scan is the most appropriate initial intervention for a suspected stroke.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: variable decelerations. Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in fetal heart rate that vary in depth, duration, and timing, which can indicate cord compression. The variability in these decelerations suggests that the umbilical cord is being compressed intermittently. Early decelerations (B) are usually caused by head compression during contractions and mirror the contractions, not indicating cord compression. Bradycardia (C) is a slow heart rate, which can be caused by various factors but is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (D) is a fast heart rate, which can also be caused by various factors but is not typically associated with cord compression.