ATI RN
health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with hypertension. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Hypertension can lead to various complications affecting the heart, kidneys, and brain. Monitoring for heart failure is crucial due to the increased workload on the heart. Chronic kidney disease is a common complication of hypertension, as the kidneys are sensitive to changes in blood pressure. Stroke is another significant risk due to the potential damage to blood vessels in the brain. Therefore, monitoring for all these complications is essential in managing a patient with hypertension. Other choices are incorrect as they do not encompass all possible complications of hypertension.
Question 2 of 9
In response to a question about use of alcohol, a patient asks the nurse why the nurse needs that information. What reason would the nurse give the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because alcohol can interact with medications and exacerbate certain medical conditions. The nurse needs this information to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect because the question is not about the patient's reliability. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes the nurse is required to educate the patient about alcohol dangers. Choice D is incorrect because even without an obvious drinking problem, alcohol use can still impact the patient's health.
Question 3 of 9
Which intervention should the nurse implement for a client who is experiencing a seizure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering antiepileptic medications. This is because during an active seizure, the priority is to stop the seizure activity. Antiepileptic medications are specifically designed to prevent or reduce the frequency and intensity of seizures. Placing the client on their side and protecting their head (choice A) is important for safety but does not address stopping the seizure. Loosening clothing and ensuring safety (choice B) is also important but does not directly address the seizure itself. Monitoring airway and giving oxygen (choice C) is crucial but does not actively stop the seizure. Therefore, administering antiepileptic medications is the most appropriate intervention to address the root cause of the seizure.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving chemotherapy. The nurse should monitor for signs of which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neutropenia. Chemotherapy can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decrease in neutrophils (a type of white blood cell), causing neutropenia. This increases the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in patients receiving chemotherapy to prevent serious complications. Anemia (A) is a common side effect of chemotherapy but is not directly related to infection risk. Hyperkalemia (B) and hypocalcemia (D) are less likely to be immediate complications of chemotherapy compared to neutropenia.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is conducting a physical assessment. The data the nurse would collect vary depending on what?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: The nurse should prioritize collecting data based on the client's acuity to address immediate needs and ensure patient safety. Step 2: Acuity determines the urgency and intensity of care required, guiding the assessment focus. Step 3: Time available or client cooperation may influence the depth of assessment but do not dictate the data collected. Step 4: The onset of symptoms is important for history-taking but not the primary factor in determining assessment data.
Question 6 of 9
Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: variable decelerations. Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in fetal heart rate that vary in depth, duration, and timing, which can indicate cord compression. The variability in these decelerations suggests that the umbilical cord is being compressed intermittently. Early decelerations (B) are usually caused by head compression during contractions and mirror the contractions, not indicating cord compression. Bradycardia (C) is a slow heart rate, which can be caused by various factors but is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (D) is a fast heart rate, which can also be caused by various factors but is not typically associated with cord compression.
Question 7 of 9
Which is an inappropriate item in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Transfuse neutrophils. Neutrophil transfusion is not a standard treatment for neutropenia as neutrophils do not survive well outside the body. For the other choices: B: Excluding raw vegetables is correct to prevent infection. C: Avoiding rectal suppositories is correct to prevent mucosal injury. D: Prohibiting vases of fresh flowers is correct to prevent exposure to fungal spores. So, transfusing neutrophils is inappropriate as it is not a standard treatment for neutropenia.
Question 8 of 9
Which condition places a client at risk for elevated ammonia levels?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lupus. Lupus can affect the kidneys, leading to renal impairment. Renal impairment can decrease the body's ability to excrete ammonia, resulting in elevated levels. Renal failure (choice A) can also lead to elevated ammonia levels, but lupus specifically contributes to renal issues. Cirrhosis (choice B) primarily affects the liver, not kidneys. Psoriasis (choice C) is a skin condition and does not directly impact ammonia levels.
Question 9 of 9
A woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe itching on her lower legs. Upon examination, the nurse notices red, scaly patches on the skin. The nurse suspects that this is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Psoriasis. Psoriasis is characterized by red, scaly patches on the skin, which align with the symptoms described. Psoriasis commonly affects the lower legs and is associated with severe itching. Eczema (choice B) is characterized by red, inflamed, and itchy skin patches, but typically presents differently from psoriasis. Contact dermatitis (choice C) is a localized reaction that occurs when the skin comes into contact with an irritant or allergen, and fungal infections (choice D) typically present with itching, redness, and sometimes peeling skin, but not necessarily scaly patches like psoriasis.