ATI RN
advanced health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with diabetes. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperglycemia. In diabetes, hyperglycemia occurs when blood sugar levels are too high. This can lead to various complications such as diabetic ketoacidosis or hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial to prevent these serious complications. A: Hypoglycemia is low blood sugar and can also occur in diabetes, but it is not the primary complication to monitor for in this case. B: Hyperkalemia is high potassium levels and is not a common complication of diabetes unless there are other underlying issues. C: Hypotension is low blood pressure, which can be a complication of diabetes but is not as directly related to glucose management as hyperglycemia. In summary, monitoring for hyperglycemia is essential in diabetes care to prevent serious complications associated with high blood sugar levels.
Question 2 of 9
During the health assessment, the nurse notes that a patient is anxious and worried about upcoming surgery. What is the nurse's first priority in this situation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the patient's emotional state and provide reassurance. The first priority is to address the patient's anxiety and worry, as this can impact their overall well-being and ability to cope with the upcoming surgery. By assessing the emotional state, the nurse can understand the patient's concerns and provide appropriate support and reassurance. Discussing the risks and benefits (choice B) may be important but not the immediate priority. Encouraging relaxation (choice C) may not address the underlying anxiety. Calling the surgeon (choice D) is not necessary at this point as the nurse should first focus on the patient's emotional needs.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following statements is an example of flight of ideas?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it demonstrates a rapid succession of loosely associated thoughts, typical of flight of ideas. The statement transitions from discussing a pill to the color red, then red velvet, and finally to a baby's bottom. This rapid and disjointed flow of thoughts is characteristic of flight of ideas, a symptom commonly seen in manic episodes of bipolar disorder. Choices A, B, and D do not exhibit the same level of rapid and tangential thoughts as choice C, making them incorrect.
Question 4 of 9
A man has come in to the clinic because he is afraid he might have skin cancer. During the skin assessment, the nurse notices several areas of pigmentation that look greasy, dark, and "stuck on' on his skin. Which of the following is the best prediction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: He probably has seborrheic keratosis, which do not become cancerous. Seborrheic keratosis typically appear as greasy, dark, and "stuck on" pigmented growths on the skin, commonly seen in older adults. They are benign and do not progress to skin cancer. This conclusion is based on the characteristics of seborrheic keratosis and the fact that they are not associated with malignancy. Choice A (senile lentigines) is incorrect because although they are also common in older adults, they are flat and dark spots rather than raised growths. Choice B (actinic keratoses) is incorrect as they are precancerous lesions related to sun exposure, leading to a risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma, not basal cell carcinoma. Choice C (acrochordons) are skin tags and not precursors to squamous cell carcinoma.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of hypertension and heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of worsening heart failure?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Swelling in the legs and shortness of breath. In heart failure, fluid can build up in the body causing swelling, particularly in the legs. Shortness of breath is a common symptom due to fluid accumulation in the lungs. Increased urine output and weight loss (A) are not indicative of worsening heart failure as they suggest fluid loss. Decreased blood pressure and dizziness (C) can be seen in other conditions like dehydration. Fatigue and constipation (D) are not specific signs of heart failure worsening.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with acute pancreatitis. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypotension and tachycardia. In acute pancreatitis, complications like hypovolemic shock can lead to hypotension and tachycardia due to fluid shifts and inflammation. Decreased urine output and increased thirst (A) may indicate dehydration but are not specific to pancreatitis. Increased blood pressure and heart rate (B) are not typical signs of complications in pancreatitis. Tachypnea and cyanosis (D) suggest respiratory distress, which is not a common complication of pancreatitis.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with heart failure is experiencing shortness of breath, fatigue, and swelling in the legs. The nurse should monitor for signs of which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Worsening heart failure. Shortness of breath, fatigue, and leg swelling are common symptoms of heart failure. Monitoring for signs of worsening heart failure, such as increased dyspnea, weight gain, and decreased exercise tolerance, is crucial. Pulmonary embolism (A) presents with sudden chest pain and shortness of breath, not typically associated with chronic heart failure. Renal failure (B) may present with decreased urine output and electrolyte imbalances. Liver failure (C) may present with jaundice and changes in mental status. However, given the symptoms presented by the patient, monitoring for worsening heart failure is the most appropriate choice.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following statements represents subjective data about the patient's skin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it indicates that the information was provided directly by the patient and is based on their perception or feeling. Subjective data is based on the patient's experiences and cannot be observed or measured by others. Choices A, B, and D are all objective data as they can be observed or measured by healthcare providers. Choice A describes a visible characteristic of the skin, choice B indicates absence of observable lesions, and choice D reports an observed lesion on a specific location of the skin. Therefore, choice C is the only option that reflects subjective data about the patient's skin.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is the best indicator of a patient's nutritional status?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum albumin levels. Serum albumin is a protein produced by the liver and is a key indicator of a patient's nutritional status. Low levels of serum albumin indicate malnutrition or protein deficiency. Monitoring serum albumin levels provides an objective measure of the patient's overall nutritional status. Choice A (Patient's weight) can be influenced by factors other than nutrition, such as fluid retention or muscle mass. Choice C (Patient's food preferences) does not provide direct information on the patient's actual nutritional intake. Choice D (Number of meals consumed per day) does not account for the quality or quantity of nutrients consumed in those meals.