ATI RN
health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with diabetes who is experiencing diabetic neuropathy. The nurse should educate the patient to prioritize which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspecting feet daily for signs of injury. This is crucial in diabetic neuropathy to prevent complications such as infections and ulcers. By inspecting the feet daily, the patient can identify any injuries early and seek prompt treatment. Exercising (choice B) is important, but not the top priority. Taking pain medication (choice C) only addresses symptoms, not the root cause. Increasing protein intake (choice D) may be beneficial for healing, but foot inspection is more directly related to preventing complications in diabetic neuropathy.
Question 2 of 9
In response to a question about use of alcohol, a patient asks the nurse why the nurse needs that information. What reason would the nurse give the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because alcohol can interact with medications and exacerbate certain medical conditions. The nurse needs this information to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect because the question is not about the patient's reliability. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes the nurse is required to educate the patient about alcohol dangers. Choice D is incorrect because even without an obvious drinking problem, alcohol use can still impact the patient's health.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administering bronchodilators as prescribed. Rationale: 1. Bronchodilators help dilate the airways, improving airflow in COPD patients. 2. Priority is to address the underlying respiratory issue. 3. Bronchodilators are a standard treatment for managing COPD symptoms. 4. Improving airway patency is crucial in COPD exacerbations. Summary: - B: Encouraging avoidance of physical activity is incorrect as it can lead to deconditioning. - C: Providing supplemental oxygen is important but not the priority in this case. - D: Monitoring for acute kidney injury is unrelated to COPD management.
Question 4 of 9
What does a focused assessment primarily address?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Specific client issues. A focused assessment is a targeted examination that addresses specific client concerns or issues. By focusing on a particular aspect of the client's health, healthcare providers can gather relevant information efficiently and effectively. This approach allows for a more in-depth evaluation of the specific problem at hand, leading to better treatment outcomes. Choice A (Comprehensive physical findings) is incorrect because a focused assessment does not aim to gather information on all physical findings, but rather on specific issues. Choice C (Multiple body systems) is incorrect because a focused assessment is more narrow in scope and typically focuses on one area or system of the body. Choice D (Long-term wellness goals) is incorrect as a focused assessment is more immediate and targeted towards addressing current issues rather than long-term goals.
Question 5 of 9
What should be the nurse's first action for a client who has sustained a spinal cord injury?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the client in a supine position. This is the first action because it helps prevent further injury to the spinal cord by maintaining alignment. Immobilizing the spine (choice A) is important but should come after placing the client in a supine position. Assessing the client's airway (choice B) is crucial but not the first action in a spinal cord injury. Encouraging deep breathing (choice D) is not appropriate as the priority is to stabilize the spine. In summary, placing the client in a supine position is the initial step to prevent worsening of the spinal cord injury, while the other choices are important but secondary actions.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which of the following lab results would the nurse expect to be elevated in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN). In CKD, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter waste products, leading to an increase in BUN levels. Elevated BUN indicates impaired kidney function. Calcium, potassium, and sodium levels may also be affected in CKD, but they are more likely to be imbalanced rather than consistently elevated. Calcium levels may be low due to impaired vitamin D activation, potassium levels may be high due to decreased excretion, and sodium levels can fluctuate based on fluid status. Therefore, while these lab values may be abnormal in CKD, BUN is the most consistently elevated marker of kidney dysfunction.
Question 7 of 9
A woman is describing the problems she is having with her 2-year-old son. "He won't go to sleep at night, and during the day he has several fits. I get so upset when that happens." The nurse's best verbal response would be:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it demonstrates active listening and seeks clarification on the issue at hand. By asking the woman to explain what she means by "fits," the nurse can gain a better understanding of the child's behavior and provide appropriate support and guidance. This response shows empathy and a willingness to address the woman's concerns effectively. Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the woman's specific concerns or invite further discussion. Choice C is incorrect because it simply acknowledges the woman's feelings without delving deeper into the issue. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the woman's feelings and generalizes the behavior as typical for all 2-year-olds without addressing her individual situation.
Question 8 of 9
Which condition places a client at risk for elevated ammonia levels?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lupus. Lupus can affect the kidneys, leading to renal impairment. Renal impairment can decrease the body's ability to excrete ammonia, resulting in elevated levels. Renal failure (choice A) can also lead to elevated ammonia levels, but lupus specifically contributes to renal issues. Cirrhosis (choice B) primarily affects the liver, not kidneys. Psoriasis (choice C) is a skin condition and does not directly impact ammonia levels.
Question 9 of 9
Which client must avoid foods high in potassium?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client with renal disease must avoid foods high in potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, as the kidneys are unable to properly filter and excrete potassium. Foods high in potassium can lead to dangerous levels of potassium in the blood, which can be life-threatening for individuals with renal disease. Choice A is incorrect because a client receiving diuretic therapy may actually need to increase their potassium intake due to the potassium-wasting effects of diuretics. Choice B is incorrect as having an ileostomy does not necessarily affect potassium levels. Choice C is incorrect because clients with metabolic alkalosis may actually benefit from consuming foods high in potassium to help correct the acid-base imbalance.