ATI RN
jarvis health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis. The nurse should monitor for signs of which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Cirrhosis can impair the liver's ability to store glycogen and produce glucose. Step 2: Liver dysfunction can lead to hypoglycemia due to decreased glycogen stores and gluconeogenesis. Step 3: Monitoring for hypoglycemia is crucial as it can result in serious complications. Step 4: Hyperglycemia (B) is less likely in cirrhosis as the liver's ability to regulate blood sugar is impaired. Step 5: Hypokalemia (C) and hyperkalemia (D) are less directly related to cirrhosis and are not the primary concerns in this case.
Question 2 of 9
Recent Canadian immigration statistics indicate that the majority of people in this country settle in:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: large-census metropolitan areas. This is supported by the fact that large cities like Toronto, Montreal, and Vancouver attract the most immigrants due to job opportunities, diverse communities, and cultural amenities. These cities offer better infrastructure and services compared to smaller areas, making them more appealing for settlement. Choices A and B are incorrect because smaller areas may lack the resources and opportunities that large cities provide. Choice D is incorrect as extremely large cities might be overwhelming and less conducive to successful integration for newcomers. Therefore, the majority of immigrants settling in Canada choose large-census metropolitan areas for better prospects and quality of life.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with asthma who is using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). The nurse should instruct the patient to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hold the breath for at least 5 seconds after inhaling the medication. Holding the breath after inhaling the medication allows for better absorption of the medication into the lungs. This helps ensure the medication reaches the target area for optimal effectiveness. Exhaling deeply before using the inhaler (Choice A) is not necessary and can actually reduce the amount of medication reaching the lungs. Using the inhaler only when asthma symptoms are severe (Choice B) is not recommended as it is important to use the inhaler as prescribed by the healthcare provider. Inhaling deeply while activating the inhaler (Choice C) is important, but holding the breath after inhaling the medication is crucial for optimal medication delivery.
Question 4 of 9
Which therapy is effective for treating sleep problems, stress, and seasonal affective disorders?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Light therapy. Light therapy is effective for treating sleep problems, stress, and seasonal affective disorders because exposure to bright light can regulate circadian rhythms, improve mood, and alleviate symptoms associated with these conditions. Light therapy helps reset the body's internal clock, promoting better sleep patterns and reducing stress. Exercise (choice B) can also improve sleep and reduce stress, but it may not specifically target seasonal affective disorders. Medication (choice C) and herbal treatments (choice D) are not typically recommended as the first-line treatment for these conditions and may have side effects or limited efficacy compared to light therapy.
Question 5 of 9
What should the nurse do when a client develops a fever after surgery?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's blood pressure. When a client develops a fever after surgery, it could indicate various causes, including infection or inflammatory response. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to assess circulatory status, as fever can lead to increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. Administering antibiotics (choice A) should only be done if infection is confirmed. Monitoring temperature and assessing for infection (choice B) is important but not the immediate priority. Administering fluid resuscitation (choice D) may be necessary based on the client's overall condition but should be guided by monitoring blood pressure.
Question 6 of 9
Teaching a client with gonorrhea about reinfection prevention is an example of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Teaching a client with gonorrhea about reinfection prevention falls under secondary prevention, which aims to detect and treat a disease early to prevent complications and further transmission. This intervention occurs after the client has already been diagnosed with gonorrhea, focusing on preventing reinfection and spreading the infection to others. A: Primary prevention focuses on preventing the disease from occurring in the first place, such as promoting safe sex practices to prevent gonorrhea infection. C: Tertiary prevention involves managing and preventing complications of a disease that has already occurred, which is not the case with teaching about reinfection prevention. D: Primary health care prevention is a broad term that encompasses various aspects of healthcare delivery, but it does not specifically address the prevention of reinfection in a client with gonorrhea.
Question 7 of 9
Which finding indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: not pulling to a standing position. At 11-12 months, a child should be able to pull themselves to a standing position. Inability to do so suggests possible hip joint instability, a key risk factor for developmental dysplasia of the hip. Refusal to walk (A) is not specific to hip dysplasia. Negative Trendelenburg sign (C) indicates good hip abductor strength, which is not a risk factor. Negative Ortolani sign (D) is a maneuver used for hip joint assessment in infants and is not indicative of hip dysplasia risk at this age.
Question 8 of 9
What is the most important nursing intervention for a client with an open fracture?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Apply a sterile dressing. This is the most important intervention to prevent infection and protect the wound. Applying a sterile dressing helps maintain a clean environment, reduces the risk of contamination, and promotes wound healing. Administering fluids (B) may be necessary but is not the top priority. Administering IV antibiotics (C) may be required but is secondary to wound care. Monitoring for bleeding (D) is important but addressing the wound with a sterile dressing takes precedence to prevent infection.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse has decided to administer the Set Test to Mr. C., age 70 years. To administer this test the nurse needs to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the Set Test typically involves naming 10 items based on specific categories, such as those in the FACT acronym (Fruit, Animal, Color, and Town). The nurse should inform Mr. C. that he can complete the task without any hurry, which helps reduce stress and allows him to focus on recalling the items. This approach aligns with the standard administration procedure of the Set Test, promoting a relaxed and supportive environment for the patient. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should not offer direct assistance or mention availability to help unless Mr. C. explicitly requests it. Choice C is incorrect as prompting the patient's memory may interfere with the natural cognitive process being assessed. Choice D is incorrect because imposing a time limit can induce unnecessary pressure and potentially affect the accuracy of the results.