A nurse is caring for a patient with cirrhosis. The nurse should monitor for signs of which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Cirrhosis can impair the liver's ability to store glycogen and produce glucose. Step 2: Liver dysfunction can lead to hypoglycemia due to decreased glycogen stores and gluconeogenesis. Step 3: Monitoring for hypoglycemia is crucial as it can result in serious complications. Step 4: Hyperglycemia (B) is less likely in cirrhosis as the liver's ability to regulate blood sugar is impaired. Step 5: Hypokalemia (C) and hyperkalemia (D) are less directly related to cirrhosis and are not the primary concerns in this case.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Place in a safe environment. This is the priority action because it ensures the client's safety by preventing injury during the seizure. Placing the client in a safe environment involves removing any objects that could harm them, such as sharp objects or furniture. Positioning on their side (choice A) is important after the seizure to prevent aspiration. Applying warm compresses (choice C) is not indicated during a seizure. Inserting an oral airway (choice D) is not recommended as it can be dangerous during a seizure and should only be done if the client is not breathing after the seizure.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shortness of breath and weight gain. In chronic heart failure, fluid overload can lead to pulmonary congestion, causing shortness of breath. Weight gain is also a key sign of fluid retention. Increased urine output and hypotension (choice B) are more indicative of dehydration. Fatigue and dizziness (choice C) can be nonspecific symptoms and not directly related to fluid overload. Dry mouth and thirst (choice D) are symptoms of dehydration rather than fluid overload in chronic heart failure. Monitoring for shortness of breath and weight gain allows for early detection and intervention in managing fluid overload in patients with chronic heart failure.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides a thorough list of specific childhood illnesses and confirms the patient's denial of having had them. This approach ensures comprehensive documentation and accuracy. Choice A is vague and lacks specificity, potentially leading to misunderstandings. Choice B focuses on the patient's perception of their health rather than actual illnesses. Choice C mentions the patient's sister and measles, which is irrelevant to the patient's own medical history. Overall, choice D is the most accurate and relevant option for documenting the patient's childhood illnesses.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Severity. In the PQRSTU mnemonic, "S" stands for Severity, which refers to the intensity or seriousness of the symptoms experienced by the patient. This is crucial in assessing the impact of the problem on the patient's health and well-being. Incorrect choices: A: Swelling - Swelling is a physical symptom and does not encompass all aspects of the patient's perception. B: Subjectivity - While the patient's subjective experience is important, it does not specifically refer to severity. D: Symptoms - While symptoms are part of the patient's perception, the "S" in PQRSTU specifically focuses on the severity of those symptoms.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer bronchodilators. When a client is experiencing respiratory distress, the priority intervention is to open up the airways to improve breathing. Bronchodilators help relax and widen the airways, making it easier for the client to breathe. This intervention addresses the immediate need for improved respiratory function. Administering corticosteroids (choices B and C) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the priority in acute respiratory distress. Monitoring respiratory rate (choice D) is important but does not directly address the underlying issue of airway constriction in respiratory distress.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer anticoagulants. Anticoagulants are crucial in treating DVT as they prevent blood clots from getting larger and stop new clots from forming. They help reduce the risk of complications like pulmonary embolism. Administering analgesics (B) may help with pain but does not address the root cause. Diuretics (C) are used to treat conditions like fluid retention, not DVT. Applying a warm compress (D) can actually worsen DVT by promoting blood flow. Anticoagulants are the gold standard treatment for DVT.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because asking the client to describe the voices can help the nurse assess the situation and understand the client's experience better. This can provide valuable information for the nurse to determine the appropriate intervention or treatment. Leaving the client alone (B) may not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen the situation. Encouraging the client to talk about the voices (C) is helpful, but asking for a description first allows for a more systematic assessment. Telling the client there are no voices (D) is dismissive and denies the client's reality, which can be harmful and ineffective in providing appropriate care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because as a nurse, it is essential to respect and accommodate the cultural beliefs and preferences of patients. By offering to assist in arranging for the presence of the medicine woman, the nurse shows empathy, cultural competence, and patient-centered care. This approach promotes trust, communication, and collaboration with the patient. Choice B is incorrect as it disregards the patient's request and shows a lack of respect for their beliefs. Choice C is incorrect as it dismisses the significance of the patient's request, which can impact the therapeutic relationship. Choice D is incorrect as it invalidates the patient's beliefs and cultural practices, which can lead to feelings of disrespect and lack of trust.