ATI RN
Age Specific Populations Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a patient with bulimia nervosa who is experiencing frequent purging. What is a priority assessment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, to monitor electrolyte levels and cardiac function. This is a priority assessment because frequent purging in bulimia nervosa can lead to electrolyte imbalances and cardiac complications, such as arrhythmias and heart failure. Monitoring these parameters is crucial for early detection and intervention to prevent serious health consequences. Observing for signs of dehydration and low blood pressure (Choice B) is important but not as critical as monitoring electrolyte levels and cardiac function. Assessing for compulsive exercise behaviors (Choice C) and monitoring changes in eating patterns and food preferences (Choice D) are also relevant but secondary to the immediate risk of electrolyte imbalances and cardiac issues.
Question 2 of 5
A client is admitted to a day hospital following an episode in which he purchased a gun to use while standing guard over his property to prevent a neighbor from erecting a boundary fence. His wife describes him as distrustful of the motives of others and often interpreting others' motives as threats. She mentions that one time he accused her of having an affair with a neighbor with whom she chatted occasionally. The care plan will list the priority outcome as 'Client will:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct: 1. Building trust is essential in therapeutic relationships. 2. The client's distrustful nature and misinterpretation of others' motives indicate a lack of trust. 3. By demonstrating trust in the nurse, the client can begin to address his issues with mistrust. 4. Trust in the nurse can lead to better communication and engagement in therapy. 5. Trust in the nurse is foundational for therapeutic progress and successful outcomes. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: - Choice A: Admitting his action was excessive is important but does not address the underlying issue of trust. - Choice B: Writing a letter of apology to the neighbor does not directly address the client's trust issues. - Choice D: Identifying positive role models may be helpful, but building trust with the nurse is more immediate and directly related to the client's current issues.
Question 3 of 5
You are a nurse meeting for the first time with a stage 3 Alzheimer's patient who is newly referred to your home health agency. Which assessment data about the patient and caregiver(s) would be most important to acquire during your first visit to the family's home?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Ensuring patient safety is the top priority in caring for a stage 3 Alzheimer's patient in a home setting. Step 2: Restricting access to exits and stairways is crucial to prevent the patient from wandering or falling. Step 3: This assessment data is essential for implementing safety measures and preventing potential harm to the patient. Step 4: Choices B, C, and D, while important, do not directly address the immediate safety concerns of the patient.
Question 4 of 5
A 72-year-old female patient has the medical diagnosis of delirium secondary to anticholinergic medication toxicity. A nurse planning discharge care must consider the need to teach the family to be alert for maladaptive cognitive symptoms because:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because slower metabolism in the elderly can lead to medication toxicity, including anticholinergic toxicity causing delirium. As people age, their metabolism slows down, making them more susceptible to drug accumulation and toxicity. This can result in cognitive symptoms like delirium. A: Delirium is not a hypersensitivity reaction; it is an acute state of confusion. B: Denial of cognitive changes is not directly related to the risk of medication toxicity in the elderly. C: Gender is not a significant factor in medication toxicity leading to delirium; it is more related to individual metabolism and drug interactions.
Question 5 of 5
An 18-year-old referred to the mental health center often cooks gourmet meals but eats only tiny portions. The patient wears layers of loose clothing saying, "I like the style." The patient's weight dropped from 130 to 95 pounds. She has amenorrhea. Which diagnosis is most likely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anorexia nervosa. This diagnosis fits the patient's symptoms of restrictive eating, significant weight loss, amenorrhea, and denial of the severity of the situation. The patient's behavior of cooking gourmet meals but eating tiny portions and wearing layers of clothes to hide weight loss are classic signs of anorexia nervosa. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Eating disorder not otherwise specified does not fully capture the severity and specific symptoms exhibited by the patient. C: Bulimia nervosa involves binge-eating followed by compensatory behaviors, which are not described in the scenario. D: Binge eating disorder involves recurrent episodes of binge eating without compensatory behaviors, which is not indicated.