ATI RN
jarvis physical examination and health assessment 9th edition test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of asthma. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of an asthma exacerbation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased wheezing and shortness of breath. During an asthma exacerbation, bronchial airways become inflamed and narrowed, leading to increased wheezing and shortness of breath. This is a classic sign of worsening asthma. Other choices are incorrect because: A) Decreased work of breathing is not expected in an asthma exacerbation as the patient usually struggles to breathe. C) Improved oxygen saturation is unlikely as airway obstruction can lead to decreased oxygen levels. D) Decreased sputum production is not a typical sign of asthma exacerbation; in fact, increased sputum production may occur due to airway inflammation.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is interviewing a recent immigrant from Mexico. During the course of the interview, the man leans forward and then finally moves his chair close enough that his knees are nearly touching the nurse's. The nurse begins to feel uncomfortable with his proximity. Which of the following statements describes the most appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Try to relax; this behavior is culturally appropriate for this person." In Mexican culture, close proximity during conversations is common and signifies engagement and trust. By understanding cultural differences, the nurse can avoid misinterpreting the behavior. Moving the chair back (choice B) may be seen as rude. Assuming sexual aggression (choice C) without evidence is inappropriate. Laughing and asking to move away (choice D) may embarrass the individual. Understanding and respecting cultural norms is crucial in providing effective care.
Question 3 of 9
A patient tells the nurse that she believes in "the hot"“cold theory, where illness is caused by hot or cold entering the body." Which of the following responses from the nurse would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it shows respect for the patient's belief and promotes open communication. By asking the patient to explain more about the hot-cold theory, the nurse acknowledges the patient's perspective and builds a trusting relationship. Option A dismisses the patient's belief, risking alienation. Option B is informative but misses the opportunity to understand the patient's cultural beliefs. Option C is unprofessional and does not address the patient's concerns.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic liver disease. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. In chronic liver disease, the liver is unable to properly process bilirubin, leading to jaundice. Jaundice is characterized by yellowing of the skin and eyes. It is a common complication of liver disease and indicates impaired liver function. Anemia (choice B) may occur in liver disease, but it is not the primary complication. Hyperglycemia (choice C) and hypoglycemia (choice D) are more commonly associated with diabetes or pancreatic disorders, rather than chronic liver disease. Therefore, monitoring for jaundice is crucial in the care of a patient with chronic liver disease.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who has a history of hypertension and reports a new onset of headaches, nausea, and dizziness. The nurse should be most concerned about which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertensive crisis. The nurse should be most concerned about this option because the patient has a history of hypertension and is experiencing new onset symptoms such as headaches, nausea, and dizziness, which could indicate a sudden and severe increase in blood pressure. This condition, if left untreated, can lead to serious complications such as stroke or heart attack. Summary: - B: Migraine headache is unlikely as the symptoms described are not typical of a migraine. - C: Benign positional vertigo is unlikely as it does not explain the presence of headaches and nausea. - D: Tension headache is less concerning compared to hypertensive crisis, given the patient's history of hypertension and the severity of symptoms.
Question 6 of 9
Why is the concept of prevention essential in describing health?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because prevention emphasizes the importance of personal behavior in maintaining health. It highlights the role of individual choices in preventing diseases and promoting well-being. A is incorrect because prevention focuses on proactive measures rather than treating external factors. B is incorrect as it contradicts the importance of prevention in reducing preventable deaths. D is incorrect because prevention is about avoiding health issues before they occur, not treating them after they have developed.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of hypertension and diabetes. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: The patient has a history of hypertension and diabetes, putting them at risk for cardiovascular complications. Step 2: Among the choices, stroke is a common complication associated with uncontrolled hypertension and diabetes. Step 3: Monitoring for signs of stroke is crucial to prevent serious consequences in this patient population. Step 4: Hyperglycemia (A) is a common complication of diabetes, but it is not directly related to the patient's hypertension. Step 5: Hypokalemia (C) is an electrolyte imbalance that can occur in some conditions but is not as directly linked to the patient's history. Step 6: Hypoglycemia (D) is a potential complication in diabetic patients but is not as common as hyperglycemia and is not directly related to hypertension.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory failure. Patients with COPD have impaired lung function, making them at risk for respiratory failure due to inadequate oxygenation. This can occur due to exacerbation of COPD, infections, or other factors. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress is crucial. A: Pneumonia - While patients with COPD are at higher risk for pneumonia due to impaired lung function, respiratory failure is a more immediate and critical complication to monitor for in this scenario. C: Hypoglycemia - COPD does not directly increase the risk of hypoglycemia, so monitoring for this complication is not a priority in this case. D: Hypertension - Although some patients with COPD may have hypertension, it is not a common complication directly related to COPD. Monitoring for respiratory failure is more essential in this situation.
Question 9 of 9
A 35-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic for her monthly appointment. During assessment, the nurse notices that she has a brown patch of hyperpigmentation on her face. The nurse continues the skin assessment aware that another finding may be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Linea nigra. This is a common finding during pregnancy due to hormonal changes causing hyperpigmentation on the abdomen. The other choices are incorrect because keratosis refers to a skin condition characterized by rough, scaly patches; melasma is a condition causing dark patches on the skin, often due to hormonal changes; and linea gravida is not a recognized term in dermatology. Therefore, based on the context of the patient being pregnant and presenting with hyperpigmentation on her face, the most likely finding would be Linea nigra, a dark line that runs from the navel to the pubic bone during pregnancy.