ATI RN
advanced health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, hypercapnia. In COPD, impaired lung function leads to inadequate oxygen exchange, causing increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood (hypercapnia). This can result in respiratory acidosis and further exacerbate respiratory distress. Monitoring for hypercapnia is crucial in COPD management to prevent respiratory failure. Incorrect choices: A: Pulmonary embolism - While patients with COPD are at increased risk for blood clots, pulmonary embolism is not a direct complication of COPD. B: Pneumothorax - Although individuals with COPD may develop pneumothorax due to weakened lung tissue, it is not a common complication. D: Asthma attack - Asthma and COPD are distinct conditions with different pathophysiology. Asthma attacks are not a typical complication of COPD.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, hypercapnia. In COPD, impaired lung function leads to inadequate oxygen exchange, causing increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood (hypercapnia). This can result in respiratory acidosis and further exacerbate respiratory distress. Monitoring for hypercapnia is crucial in COPD management to prevent respiratory failure. Incorrect choices: A: Pulmonary embolism - While patients with COPD are at increased risk for blood clots, pulmonary embolism is not a direct complication of COPD. B: Pneumothorax - Although individuals with COPD may develop pneumothorax due to weakened lung tissue, it is not a common complication. D: Asthma attack - Asthma and COPD are distinct conditions with different pathophysiology. Asthma attacks are not a typical complication of COPD.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is the best indicator of a patient's nutritional status?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum albumin levels. Serum albumin is a protein produced by the liver and is a key indicator of a patient's nutritional status. Low levels of serum albumin indicate malnutrition or protein deficiency. Monitoring serum albumin levels provides an objective measure of the patient's overall nutritional status. Choice A (Patient's weight) can be influenced by factors other than nutrition, such as fluid retention or muscle mass. Choice C (Patient's food preferences) does not provide direct information on the patient's actual nutritional intake. Choice D (Number of meals consumed per day) does not account for the quality or quantity of nutrients consumed in those meals.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following statements is an example of flight of ideas?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it demonstrates a rapid succession of loosely associated thoughts, typical of flight of ideas. The statement transitions from discussing a pill to the color red, then red velvet, and finally to a baby's bottom. This rapid and disjointed flow of thoughts is characteristic of flight of ideas, a symptom commonly seen in manic episodes of bipolar disorder. Choices A, B, and D do not exhibit the same level of rapid and tangential thoughts as choice C, making them incorrect.
Question 5 of 9
Which statement is correct regarding the development of one's culture?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because culture is indeed rooted in specific social elements such as language, customs, traditions, beliefs, and values. These elements are passed down through generations within a particular society or group. Choice A is incorrect because culture is not genetically determined, but rather learned and acquired through socialization. Choice C is incorrect as culture plays a crucial role in shaping identities, behaviors, and interactions within a society. Choice D is incorrect as culture is not biologically determined, but rather socially constructed.
Question 6 of 9
During the health assessment, the nurse notes that a patient is anxious and worried about upcoming surgery. What is the nurse's first priority in this situation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the patient's emotional state and provide reassurance. The first priority is to address the patient's anxiety and worry, as this can impact their overall well-being and ability to cope with the upcoming surgery. By assessing the emotional state, the nurse can understand the patient's concerns and provide appropriate support and reassurance. Discussing the risks and benefits (choice B) may be important but not the immediate priority. Encouraging relaxation (choice C) may not address the underlying anxiety. Calling the surgeon (choice D) is not necessary at this point as the nurse should first focus on the patient's emotional needs.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of chronic liver disease. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jaundice. In chronic liver disease, impaired liver function leads to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, causing jaundice. Jaundice is a common complication seen in patients with liver disease. Anemia (choice A) may occur in liver disease but is not as specific as jaundice. Hypertension (choice C) is not a direct complication of liver disease. Hypoglycemia (choice D) is more commonly associated with pancreatic disorders, not liver disease. Therefore, monitoring for jaundice is crucial in patients with chronic liver disease.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with heart failure is experiencing shortness of breath, fatigue, and swelling in the legs. The nurse should monitor for signs of which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Worsening heart failure. Shortness of breath, fatigue, and leg swelling are common symptoms of heart failure. Monitoring for signs of worsening heart failure, such as increased dyspnea, weight gain, and decreased exercise tolerance, is crucial. Pulmonary embolism (A) presents with sudden chest pain and shortness of breath, not typically associated with chronic heart failure. Renal failure (B) may present with decreased urine output and electrolyte imbalances. Liver failure (C) may present with jaundice and changes in mental status. However, given the symptoms presented by the patient, monitoring for worsening heart failure is the most appropriate choice.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following statements represents subjective data about the patient's skin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it indicates that the information was provided directly by the patient and is based on their perception or feeling. Subjective data is based on the patient's experiences and cannot be observed or measured by others. Choices A, B, and D are all objective data as they can be observed or measured by healthcare providers. Choice A describes a visible characteristic of the skin, choice B indicates absence of observable lesions, and choice D reports an observed lesion on a specific location of the skin. Therefore, choice C is the only option that reflects subjective data about the patient's skin.