ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who just underwentan intravenous pyelography that revealed a renal calculus obstructing the left ureter. What is the nurse’sfirstpriorityin caring for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the patient for fever, rash, and difficulty breathing. The rationale is as follows: 1. Renal calculus obstruction can lead to complications such as infection, so monitoring for fever is crucial. 2. Rash can indicate an allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the procedure. 3. Difficulty breathing may signal a severe reaction or complications. Summary: A: Turning the patient on the right side does not directly address the urgent need to monitor for potential complications. B: While fluid intake is important, it is not the immediate priority when the patient is at risk of developing complications. D: Administering narcotic medications may be necessary for pain relief but does not address the potential emergent issues related to the obstruction.
Question 2 of 9
As the American population ages, nurses expect see more patients admitted to long-term care facilities in need of palliative care. Regulations now in place that govern how the care in these facilities is both organized and reimbursed emphasize what aspect of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Incentives to palliative care. Palliative care focuses on improving the quality of life for patients with serious illnesses by addressing their physical, emotional, and spiritual needs. As the American population ages, the emphasis on palliative care in long-term care facilities is crucial. Regulations emphasizing incentives for palliative care ensure that patients receive appropriate symptom management, comfort care, and support to enhance their overall well-being. Choice A: Ongoing acute care is not the correct answer because palliative care is different from acute care, which focuses on treating the underlying medical condition. Choice B: Restorative measures are not the correct answer as palliative care aims to improve quality of life rather than focusing on restoring physical function. Choice C: Mobility and socialization are important aspects of care in long-term facilities, but palliative care goes beyond these aspects to provide holistic support for patients facing serious illnesses.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse practitioner is examining a patient who presented at the free clinic with vulvar pruritus. For which assessment finding would the practitioner look that may indicate the patient has an infection caused by Candida albicans?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cottage cheese-like discharge. Candida albicans is a common cause of vulvovaginal candidiasis, characterized by itching and cottage cheese-like discharge. This type of discharge is specific to a yeast infection. Yellow-green discharge (choice B) is indicative of trichomoniasis, gray-white discharge (choice C) is seen in bacterial vaginosis, and watery discharge with a fishy odor (choice D) is characteristic of bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis. Therefore, the presence of cottage cheese-like discharge is a key indicator of a Candida albicans infection.
Question 4 of 9
A patient was prescribed an oral antibiotic for the treatment of sinusitis. The patient has now stopped, stating she developed a rash shortly after taking the first dose of the drug. What is the nurses most appropriate response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Refer the woman to her primary care provider to have the medication changed. Rationale: 1. Rash after taking the first dose of an antibiotic suggests a possible allergic reaction. 2. Allergic reactions can range from mild to severe, including anaphylaxis. 3. It is crucial to discontinue the suspected medication to prevent worsening of the reaction. 4. Referring the patient to their primary care provider ensures proper evaluation and management. 5. Changing the medication is necessary to avoid potential harm from continued exposure. Summary: A: Continuing the medication can worsen the allergic reaction and is not recommended. C: Going to the emergency department may be excessive at this point for a mild rash. D: Taking an antihistamine does not address the underlying issue of an allergic reaction.
Question 5 of 9
A patient has been prescribed sildenafil. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because sildenafil works by enhancing the effects of nitric oxide, which is released during sexual stimulation to relax the muscles in the penis and increase blood flow for an erection. Therefore, sexual stimulation is necessary for the medication to be effective. Explanation of other choices: B: While sildenafil is typically taken 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, it does not need to be exactly 1 hour prior. C: Facial flushing and headache are common side effects of sildenafil but do not require immediate reporting unless severe or persistent. D: Sildenafil may cause temporary visual disturbances like changes in color vision, but permanent visual changes are rare.
Question 6 of 9
A woman is considering breast reduction mammoplasty. When weighing the potential risks and benefits of this surgical procedure, the nurse should confirm that the patient is aware of what potential consequence?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased nipple sensation. During breast reduction mammoplasty, nerves responsible for nipple sensation may be disrupted, leading to decreased sensation in the nipple area. This is an important consequence to consider as it can impact the patient's satisfaction and quality of life post-surgery. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Chronic breast pain is a potential risk of surgery but not a consequence directly related to nipple sensation. B: Unclear mammography results may occur due to breast tissue changes from surgery, but it is not a direct consequence of decreased nipple sensation. C: Increased risk of breast cancer is not a common consequence of breast reduction mammoplasty and is not directly related to nipple sensation.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse administers an antimuscarinic to a patient.Which findings indicate the patient is having therapeutic effects from this medication? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decrease in dysuria. Antimuscarinic medications target muscarinic receptors, which are involved in the contraction of smooth muscle in the bladder. Dysuria, or painful urination, is a common symptom of overactive bladder or bladder spasms, which can be relieved by antimuscarinics. Choices B, C, and D are related to other urinary symptoms such as urgency, frequency, and prostate size, respectively, which are not directly targeted by antimuscarinics. Therefore, only a decrease in dysuria indicates therapeutic effects of the medication.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with a diagnosis of retinal detachment has undergone a vitreoretinal procedure on an outpatient basis. What subject should the nurse prioritize during discharge education?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Compensating for vision loss for the next several weeks. This is the priority subject for discharge education because vision loss is a common outcome post vitreoretinal procedure. The patient needs to understand how to adapt to this temporary impairment, such as using assistive devices and modifying their environment. A: Risk factors for postoperative CMV is not the priority as it is not a common concern in this situation. C: Non-pharmacologic pain management is important but not the priority compared to vision loss. D: Signs and symptoms of increased intraocular pressure are important but not as crucial as managing vision loss.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient withClostridiumdifficile. Which nursing actions will have thegreatest impact in preventing the spread of the bacteria?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D - Proper hand hygiene techniques Rationale: 1. Clostridium difficile is mainly spread through contact with contaminated surfaces. 2. Proper hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent the spread of bacteria. 3. Hand hygiene removes bacteria from hands, reducing the risk of transmission. 4. Appropriate disposal (A) is important but doesn't directly prevent spread. Monthly in-services (B) and mandatory cultures (C) are not as effective as hand hygiene in preventing transmission.