ATI RN
health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving chemotherapy. The nurse should monitor for signs of which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neutropenia. Chemotherapy can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decrease in neutrophils (a type of white blood cell), causing neutropenia. This increases the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in patients receiving chemotherapy to prevent serious complications. Anemia (A) is a common side effect of chemotherapy but is not directly related to infection risk. Hyperkalemia (B) and hypocalcemia (D) are less likely to be immediate complications of chemotherapy compared to neutropenia.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following statements is true regarding respect for differences?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because conveying respect for differences helps build trust and encourages patients to share their perspectives openly. This fosters a positive patient-provider relationship and enhances communication. Choice A is incorrect as patients have unique behaviors. Choice C is incorrect as cultural expectations do not fully explain individual differences. Choice D is incorrect as expressing one's culture is not solely dependent on exposure to Canadian values.
Question 3 of 9
Which technique should the nurse use to determine the presence of crepitus during a physical examination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct technique to determine the presence of crepitus during a physical examination is palpation. Crepitus is a crackling or grating sensation that is felt when there is air trapped in the subcutaneous tissue. Palpation involves using the hands to feel for abnormalities such as crepitus. Percussion involves tapping on the body to produce sounds that can help assess underlying structures, not to determine the presence of crepitus. Auscultation is listening to sounds within the body using a stethoscope, which is not relevant for detecting crepitus.
Question 4 of 9
Which client should avoid foods high in potassium?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients with renal disease may have impaired kidney function, leading to difficulty in regulating potassium levels. High potassium intake can further burden the kidneys, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Clients on diuretic therapy (choice A) may actually need to monitor potassium levels due to potential electrolyte imbalances. Clients with an ileostomy (choice B) typically do not have issues with potassium absorption. Clients with metabolic alkalosis (choice C) may have potassium shifts but do not necessarily need to avoid high-potassium foods unless specifically advised by their healthcare provider.
Question 5 of 9
What should be the nurse's first action when caring for a client who has a suspected stroke?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the client's airway. This is the first action because airway patency is the top priority in any emergency situation, including a suspected stroke. Ensuring the client can breathe effectively is crucial to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Administering oxygen (choice B) may be necessary after assessing the airway. Administering aspirin (choice C) should be done after a definitive diagnosis of an ischemic stroke. Performing a CT scan (choice D) is important for diagnosis but is not the first action to take in a suspected stroke scenario.
Question 6 of 9
A woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe itching on her lower legs. Upon examination, the nurse notices red, scaly patches on the skin. The nurse suspects that this is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Psoriasis. Psoriasis is characterized by red, scaly patches on the skin, which align with the symptoms described. Psoriasis commonly affects the lower legs and is associated with severe itching. Eczema (choice B) is characterized by red, inflamed, and itchy skin patches, but typically presents differently from psoriasis. Contact dermatitis (choice C) is a localized reaction that occurs when the skin comes into contact with an irritant or allergen, and fungal infections (choice D) typically present with itching, redness, and sometimes peeling skin, but not necessarily scaly patches like psoriasis.
Question 7 of 9
In response to a question about use of alcohol, a patient asks the nurse why the nurse needs that information. What reason would the nurse give the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because alcohol can interact with medications and exacerbate certain medical conditions. The nurse needs this information to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect because the question is not about the patient's reliability. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes the nurse is required to educate the patient about alcohol dangers. Choice D is incorrect because even without an obvious drinking problem, alcohol use can still impact the patient's health.
Question 8 of 9
What is the most important intervention for a client with a wound infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antibiotics. Antibiotics are crucial in treating wound infections as they target and eliminate the infection-causing bacteria, preventing the infection from spreading and promoting healing. Applying a cold compress (choice B) or heat (choice C) may provide temporary relief but do not address the underlying infection. Administering IV fluids (choice D) may be necessary for hydration, but it does not directly treat the infection. Antibiotics directly target the infection, making it the most important intervention for a client with a wound infection.
Question 9 of 9
What does a focused assessment primarily address?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Specific client issues. A focused assessment is a targeted examination that addresses specific client concerns or issues. By focusing on a particular aspect of the client's health, healthcare providers can gather relevant information efficiently and effectively. This approach allows for a more in-depth evaluation of the specific problem at hand, leading to better treatment outcomes. Choice A (Comprehensive physical findings) is incorrect because a focused assessment does not aim to gather information on all physical findings, but rather on specific issues. Choice C (Multiple body systems) is incorrect because a focused assessment is more narrow in scope and typically focuses on one area or system of the body. Choice D (Long-term wellness goals) is incorrect as a focused assessment is more immediate and targeted towards addressing current issues rather than long-term goals.