ATI RN
health assessment exam 1 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who is post-operative following a hip replacement. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Post-operative hip replacement patients are at high risk for DVT due to immobility and surgical trauma. The nurse should monitor for signs such as swelling, redness, and pain in the affected leg. DVT can lead to serious complications like pulmonary embolism if not detected early. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while pneumonia, wound infection, and hypoglycemia are also potential post-operative complications, they are not as directly associated with hip replacement surgery as DVT.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse should monitor for signs of which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory failure. Patients with COPD are at risk for respiratory failure due to impaired gas exchange and respiratory muscle weakness. This can lead to hypoxia and hypercapnia. Monitoring for signs such as increased work of breathing, decreased oxygen saturation, and altered mental status is crucial. Hypoglycemia (A) is not a common complication of COPD. Hyperkalemia (C) is less likely to occur in COPD unless the patient is on medications that can cause elevated potassium levels. Anemia (D) may be present in COPD due to chronic inflammation, but it is not a direct complication that requires monitoring for signs of respiratory failure.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Providing supplemental oxygen. In COPD, patients often have difficulty breathing due to impaired lung function. Supplemental oxygen helps improve oxygenation and relieves respiratory distress. Prioritizing this intervention is crucial for managing COPD exacerbations and preventing complications. Administering diuretics (A) may be indicated for comorbid conditions like heart failure but is not a priority in managing COPD. Increasing fluid intake (C) may not directly address the patient's respiratory distress. Encouraging bed rest (D) may lead to deconditioning and worsen respiratory function in COPD patients.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who is post-operative following an appendectomy. The nurse should prioritize which of the following in the immediate post-operative period?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, monitoring vital signs and fluid status, because it is crucial for assessing the patient's immediate post-operative condition and detecting any signs of complications like hemorrhage or shock. This step ensures early intervention if any issues arise, promoting patient safety and recovery. Administering pain medication (A) is important but not the top priority. Encouraging early ambulation (B) and providing wound care (D) are also essential but come after ensuring the patient's vital signs and fluid status are stable.
Question 5 of 9
A patient drifts off to sleep when there is no stimulation. The nurse can arouse her easily by calling her name, but she remains drowsy during the conversation. The best description of this patient's level of consciousness would be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lethargic. Lethargic is defined as a state of drowsiness or diminished alertness where the patient can be easily aroused by simple stimuli like calling their name, but they remain drowsy and may drift back to sleep. This patient's ability to be aroused by verbal stimuli and their drowsiness during conversation fits the description of lethargic. Explanation for other choices: B: Obtunded - Obtunded refers to a more severe level of decreased consciousness where the patient is difficult to fully arouse and may have limited interactions with the nurse. C: Stuporous - Stuporous indicates an even deeper state of unconsciousness where the patient requires significant stimulation to be aroused and has minimal responsiveness. D: Semialert - Semialert would describe a patient who is more responsive than lethargic, showing better awareness of their surroundings and able to maintain a conversation more effectively.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following statements about mental health assessment is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because mental status is indeed inferred through assessment of an individual's behaviors. Mental health assessment involves observing and evaluating a person's thoughts, emotions, behaviors, and overall mental functioning to determine their mental status. This includes assessing speech, mood, cognition, and perception. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because: A: Mental health assessment does not solely focus on diagnosing specific psychiatric disorders; it is a broader evaluation of an individual's mental well-being. B: Mental disorders can result from a variety of factors beyond everyday life stressors, such as genetic predisposition or traumatic experiences. D: Mental health assessment is more complex than assessing physical characteristics and involves subjective interpretation of behaviors rather than direct observation like physical assessments.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is assessing a 45-year-old male patient with a history of smoking. The nurse would be most concerned if the patient reports:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because shortness of breath with minimal exertion indicates possible respiratory distress, which can be a sign of significant lung damage from smoking. This symptom suggests a decreased ability to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide efficiently, potentially leading to serious health complications. Choice B is incorrect because an occasional cough with mucus production is common in smokers and may not be as alarming as shortness of breath. Choice C is incorrect as slight wheezing after physical activity could be due to exercise-induced asthma rather than solely smoking-related issues. Choice D is incorrect because even though the patient may not be experiencing symptoms related to smoking currently, it does not rule out potential underlying lung damage or future health risks associated with smoking.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with asthma about managing triggers. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates the need for further education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I should smoke to relieve stress and manage symptoms." This statement indicates a need for further education because smoking can worsen asthma symptoms. Here's the rationale: 1. Smoking is a common trigger for asthma exacerbations due to irritants in tobacco smoke. 2. Smoking can lead to airway inflammation and constriction, making asthma symptoms more severe. 3. Asthma management involves avoiding smoking and secondhand smoke exposure. 4. Choices A, B, and D are correct as they align with asthma management guidelines to avoid triggers and use inhalers as prescribed.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is the appropriate health promotion question to ask during a review of symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Do you use sunscreen while outside?" because it directly relates to health promotion by addressing preventive measures. Sunscreen helps prevent skin cancer and other skin conditions. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on assessing skin condition rather than promoting health. Choice C is incorrect as it relates to symptoms rather than prevention. Choice D is incorrect as it is related to assessing a specific symptom rather than promoting overall health.