ATI RN
ATI Vital Signs Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a patient who is ambulating for the first time after surgery. Upon standing, the patient complains of dizziness and faintness. The patients blood pressure is 90/50. What is the name for this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is a BP drop (e.g., 90/50) upon standing causing dizziness, per the answer key. Hypertension is a rise, bradycardia slow pulse, tachycardia fast pulsenone fit. Nurses manage this post-surgical risk with gradual position changes.
Question 2 of 5
A 48-year-old high school librarian comes to your clinic, complaining of 1 week of heavy discharge causing severe itching. She is not presently sexually active and has had no burning with urination. The symptoms started several days after her last period. She just finished a course of antibiotics for a sinus infection. Her past medical history consists of type 2 diabetes and high blood pressure. She is widowed and has three children. She denies tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father died of diabetes complications. On examination you see a healthy-appearing woman. Her blood pressure is 130/80 and her pulse is 70. Her head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Palpation of the inguinal lymph nodes is unremarkable. On visualization of the vulva, a thick, white, curdy discharge is seen at the introitus. On speculum examination there is a copious amount of this discharge. The pH of the discharge is 4.1 and the KOH whiff test is negative, with no unusual smell. Wet prep shows budding hyphae. What vaginitis does this patient most likely have?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Candida vaginitis. In this case, the patient's symptoms of heavy discharge, severe itching, and thick, white, curdy discharge at the introitus are indicative of a yeast infection, which is commonly caused by Candida species. The presence of budding hyphae on wet prep further supports this diagnosis, as Candida typically presents with this characteristic. The negative KOH whiff test and pH of 4.1 are consistent with Candida vaginitis, as opposed to Trichomonas vaginitis or bacterial vaginosis, which would have different pH levels and odors. Atrophic vaginitis is unlikely given the patient's age and absence of hormonal changes. Therefore, based on the clinical presentation and laboratory findings, Candida vaginitis is the most likely diagnosis for this patient.
Question 3 of 5
A 51-year-old cook comes to your office for consultation. She recently found out that her 44-year-old sister with premenopausal breast cancer is positive for the BRCA1 gene. Your patient has been doing research on the Internet and saw that her chance of having also inherited the BRCA1 gene is 50%. She is interested in knowing what her risk of developing breast cancer would be if she were positive for the gene. She denies any lumps in her breasts and has had normal mammograms. She has had no weight loss, fever, or night sweats. Her mother is healthy and her father has prostate cancer. Two of her paternal aunts died of breast cancer. She is married. She denies using tobacco or illegal drugs and rarely drinks alcohol. Her breast and axilla examinations are unremarkable. At her age, what is her risk of getting breast cancer if she has the BRCA1 gene?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (50%). Given the patient's family history of premenopausal breast cancer in her sister with the BRCA1 gene, her risk of developing breast cancer with the gene is 50%. BRCA1 mutations significantly increase the risk of breast cancer. The patient's normal mammograms and lack of breast symptoms do not negate the genetic risk. Options A (10%) and C (80%) are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the elevated risk associated with BRCA1 mutations. Option D is incomplete and cannot be considered as a valid choice. Therefore, the most appropriate answer is B (50%).
Question 4 of 5
A grandmother brings her 13-year-old grandson for evaluation of a collapsed breastbone that has been present for quite awhile. He has no symptoms but is embarrassed about his appearance.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Funnel chest (pectus excavatum). Pectus excavatum is characterized by a depression or concave appearance of the breastbone (sternum). In this case, the 13-year-old grandson has a collapsed breastbone, which aligns with the description of pectus excavatum. This condition is often asymptomatic but can cause embarrassment due to the appearance. Barrel chest (choice A) refers to an increase in the anteroposterior diameter of the chest often seen in conditions like COPD, not related to a collapsed breastbone. Pigeon chest (choice C) is the opposite of pectus excavatum, where the sternum protrudes outward. Thoracic kyphoscoliosis (choice D) involves a combination of kyphosis (excessive outward curvature of the spine) and scoliosis (sideways curvature of the spine), not directly related to a collapsed breastbone.
Question 5 of 5
A 19-year-old woman comes to the clinic at the insistence of her brother. She is wearing black combat boots and a black lace nightgown over the top of her other clothes. Her hair is dyed pink with black streaks throughout. She has several pierced holes in her nares and ears and is wearing an earring through her eyebrow and heavy black makeup. The nurse concludes that:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it is important to gather more information before making assumptions or conclusions about the woman's appearance. Without a comprehensive assessment of her mental health, personal preferences, cultural background, and any potential underlying issues, it would be inappropriate to jump to conclusions about her attire. Choice A is incorrect because judging solely based on appearance is not a valid way to assess someone's well-being. Choice B is incorrect as dismissing her appearance as a mere attempt to shock overlooks the potential reasons behind her choices. Choice C is incorrect because associating her appearance with a manic syndrome without proper evaluation is premature and stigmatizing.