A nurse is caring for a patient who has just been diagnosed with chlamydia and wants to know when she can have sex with her boyfriend again. What is the best response from the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The rationale is as follows: 1. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that requires treatment to prevent transmission. 2. The patient should complete the full course of treatment to ensure the infection is cleared. 3. Waiting 7 days after completing treatment allows time for the medication to be effective and for the patient's partner to also receive treatment. 4. Having sex before completing treatment and ensuring the partner is treated can lead to re-infection and further transmission. Therefore, choice A is the best response. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Incorrect as having sex immediately after finishing the medicine without waiting for partner treatment can lead to re-infection. C: Incorrect as both partners need to complete treatment to prevent re-infection. D: Incorrect as waiting is necessary to ensure the infection is fully treated and transmission is prevented.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. Step 1: E. coli is the most common causative agent of pyelonephritis due to its ability to ascend from the lower urinary tract to the kidneys. Step 2: E. coli is a common bacteria found in the gut and can easily infect the urinary tract. Step 3: Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, and Candida albicans are not commonly associated with pyelonephritis. Thus, the correct choice is A.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: alcohol use of at least 2 drinks per day. Alcohol consumption is a known risk factor for breast cancer as it can increase estrogen levels in the body, which may contribute to the development of breast cancer. Menarche at age 15 (Choice A) is not a risk factor, as early menarche is associated with a slightly increased risk but not a significant one. Family history of diabetes (Choice B) is unrelated to breast cancer risk. History of three vaginal births by age 25 (Choice D) is actually a protective factor against breast cancer due to the changes in hormonal levels during pregnancy and breastfeeding.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C (dizziness) Rationale: 1. Dizziness can indicate a serious adverse reaction like immune-mediated neurotoxicity, requiring immediate attention. 2. Nausea, fatigue, and diarrhea are common side effects of checkpoint inhibitors but usually not emergencies. 3. Dizziness can be a sign of a potentially life-threatening condition, making it crucial to report immediately. Summary: - A: Nausea is a common side effect but not typically requiring immediate attention. - B: Fatigue is a common side effect but usually does not warrant immediate reporting. - D: Diarrhea is a known side effect but generally not an urgent concern compared to potential neurological issues signaled by dizziness.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensuring early and adequate prenatal care. Early and adequate prenatal care is crucial in identifying and addressing any potential health issues for both the mother and the baby, leading to healthier outcomes and a decrease in infant mortality rates. Providing more women's shelters (A) may help with social support but does not directly impact infant mortality rates. Resolving all language and cultural differences (C) is important for effective communication but does not directly impact infant mortality rates. Enrolling pregnant women in the Medicaid program (D) is beneficial for access to healthcare, but ensuring early and adequate prenatal care is more directly linked to decreasing infant mortality rates.