A nurse is caring for a patient who has just been diagnosed with chlamydia and wants to know when she can have sex with her boyfriend again. What is the best response from the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that requires treatment for both the infected person and their partner to prevent reinfection. The recommended practice is to abstain from sex until 7 days after completing treatment to ensure the infection is fully cleared from both individuals. This approach helps to prevent the spread of the infection and reduces the risk of complications. Choice B is incorrect because simply finishing the medicine without waiting for the partner's treatment can lead to reinfection. Choice C is incorrect as it solely focuses on the partner's treatment without considering the completion of the patient's own treatment. Choice D is incorrect as it disregards the importance of completing treatment and waiting for the specified period before resuming sexual activity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. In pyelonephritis, bacteria typically ascend from the lower urinary tract to the kidneys. E. coli is the most common cause due to its prevalence in the gastrointestinal tract and ability to cause urinary tract infections. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis are more commonly associated with sexually transmitted infections, not pyelonephritis. Candida albicans is a fungal infection and is not a common cause of pyelonephritis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: alcohol use of at least 2 drinks per day. Alcohol consumption has been consistently linked to an increased risk of breast cancer. Alcohol can raise estrogen levels in the body, thereby increasing the risk of developing breast cancer. Menarche at age 15 (choice A) is not a risk factor as early menarche is associated with a slightly decreased risk. Family history of diabetes (choice B) and history of three vaginal births by age 25 (choice D) are not directly linked to breast cancer risk.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: dizziness. Dizziness during a PD-1 infusion can indicate a potential serious adverse reaction, such as immune-related neurological toxicity. Prompt reporting is crucial to prevent complications. Nausea, fatigue, and diarrhea are common side effects of PD-1 inhibitors but are typically not considered immediate concerns for infusion reactions. Reporting dizziness ensures timely assessment and intervention to manage any severe adverse effects.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ensuring early and adequate prenatal care. Prenatal care plays a crucial role in monitoring the health of the mother and the developing fetus, detecting and managing any potential health issues early on, and providing essential education on nutrition and healthy practices. This ultimately leads to healthier pregnancies, reduced risks of complications, and improved outcomes for both the mother and the infant. Providing more women's shelters (A) may help address social issues but does not directly impact infant mortality rates. Resolving language and cultural differences (C) is important for effective healthcare delivery but is not the primary factor in reducing infant mortality. Enrolling pregnant women in Medicaid (D) is beneficial for access to healthcare but does not address the importance of early and adequate prenatal care in reducing infant mortality rates.