ATI RN
health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who has had a myocardial infarction. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to be prescribed for this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed post-myocardial infarction to reduce strain on the heart and prevent further damage. Step 2: ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril help lower blood pressure and improve heart function. Step 3: By reducing the workload on the heart, Lisinopril can help prevent complications post-MI. Step 4: Acetaminophen (B) is a pain reliever and does not address the cardiovascular issues post-MI. Step 5: Furosemide (C) and Hydrochlorothiazide (D) are diuretics typically used for managing fluid retention, not the primary focus after an MI. Summary: Lisinopril is the correct choice as it helps improve heart function and prevent complications post-MI, unlike the other options which do not directly address the cardiovascular issues associated with MI.
Question 2 of 9
What is the nurse's priority when caring for a client experiencing acute renal failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer IV fluids. In acute renal failure, the priority is to maintain adequate hydration to support kidney function. IV fluids help improve renal perfusion and urine output. Monitoring vital signs is important but not the priority. Performing a kidney function test can provide valuable information but does not address the immediate need for fluid resuscitation. Administering IV antibiotics may be necessary if there is an infection contributing to renal failure, but hydration takes precedence. In summary, administering IV fluids is crucial to support kidney function in acute renal failure, making it the top priority among the choices given.
Question 3 of 9
What is the most important assessment for a client who has been receiving chemotherapy for several weeks?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Check for signs of infection. This is crucial because chemotherapy weakens the immune system, increasing the risk of infections. Signs of infection such as fever, chills, sore throat, and cough should be closely monitored to prevent serious complications. Monitoring weight (B) and nutrition (C) are important but not as critical as detecting infections promptly. Checking for skin changes (D) is also important, but it is secondary to identifying and managing infections due to the immediate threat they pose to the client's health.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient who has a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings would be most concerning?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shortness of breath and chest pain. This is most concerning because it could indicate a pulmonary embolism, a serious complication of DVT where a blood clot travels to the lungs. Shortness of breath and chest pain are signs of compromised respiratory and cardiac function. A: Pain and swelling in the leg are common symptoms of DVT but not as concerning as symptoms of a pulmonary embolism. B: Redness and warmth around the affected area are typical signs of inflammation associated with DVT but do not indicate a life-threatening complication like a pulmonary embolism. D: Pale skin and decreased pulse in the affected leg could be signs of compromised circulation due to DVT, but they are not as immediately life-threatening as symptoms of a pulmonary embolism.
Question 5 of 9
In response to a question about use of alcohol, a patient asks the nurse why the nurse needs that information. What reason would the nurse give the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because alcohol can interact with medications and exacerbate certain medical conditions. The nurse needs this information to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect because the question is not about the patient's reliability. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes the nurse is required to educate the patient about alcohol dangers. Choice D is incorrect because even without an obvious drinking problem, alcohol use can still impact the patient's health.
Question 6 of 9
What should be the nurse's first action when caring for a client who has a suspected stroke?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the client's airway. This is the first action because airway patency is the top priority in any emergency situation, including a suspected stroke. Ensuring the client can breathe effectively is crucial to prevent hypoxia and further complications. Administering oxygen (choice B) may be necessary after assessing the airway. Administering aspirin (choice C) should be done after a definitive diagnosis of an ischemic stroke. Performing a CT scan (choice D) is important for diagnosis but is not the first action to take in a suspected stroke scenario.
Question 7 of 9
Which medication should be administered first for a client with acute asthma exacerbation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choosing Albuterol as the correct answer: 1. Albuterol is a rapid-acting bronchodilator that provides immediate relief by relaxing the airway muscles during asthma exacerbation. 2. It is the first-line medication recommended by guidelines for acute asthma attacks due to its quick onset of action. 3. Albuterol helps in opening the airways, improving airflow, and relieving symptoms like shortness of breath and wheezing. 4. Epinephrine is not the first choice for asthma exacerbation as it can have more systemic side effects. 5. Levalbuterol is a similar medication to Albuterol but may not be as widely available or cost-effective. 6. IV corticosteroids are important for long-term control but take longer to show effects, making them less suitable as the initial treatment for acute exacerbation.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a functional assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a functional assessment specifically evaluates an older adult's ability to manage day-to-day activities, such as personal care, meal preparation, and mobility. This assessment helps identify any difficulties the individual may have in performing these essential tasks, which can then inform appropriate interventions or support services. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the primary focus of a functional assessment, which is to evaluate an individual's functional abilities and independence in daily living tasks, particularly in the context of aging or disability.
Question 9 of 9
Which client should avoid foods high in potassium?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients with renal disease may have impaired kidney function, leading to difficulty in regulating potassium levels. High potassium intake can further burden the kidneys, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Clients on diuretic therapy (choice A) may actually need to monitor potassium levels due to potential electrolyte imbalances. Clients with an ileostomy (choice B) typically do not have issues with potassium absorption. Clients with metabolic alkalosis (choice C) may have potassium shifts but do not necessarily need to avoid high-potassium foods unless specifically advised by their healthcare provider.