ATI RN
health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who has had a myocardial infarction. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to be prescribed for this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed post-myocardial infarction to reduce strain on the heart and prevent further damage. Step 2: ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril help lower blood pressure and improve heart function. Step 3: By reducing the workload on the heart, Lisinopril can help prevent complications post-MI. Step 4: Acetaminophen (B) is a pain reliever and does not address the cardiovascular issues post-MI. Step 5: Furosemide (C) and Hydrochlorothiazide (D) are diuretics typically used for managing fluid retention, not the primary focus after an MI. Summary: Lisinopril is the correct choice as it helps improve heart function and prevent complications post-MI, unlike the other options which do not directly address the cardiovascular issues associated with MI.
Question 2 of 9
A woman is describing the problems she is having with her 2-year-old son. "He won't go to sleep at night, and during the day he has several fits. I get so upset when that happens." The nurse's best verbal response would be:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it demonstrates active listening and seeks clarification on the issue at hand. By asking the woman to explain what she means by "fits," the nurse can gain a better understanding of the child's behavior and provide appropriate support and guidance. This response shows empathy and a willingness to address the woman's concerns effectively. Choice A is incorrect because it does not address the woman's specific concerns or invite further discussion. Choice C is incorrect because it simply acknowledges the woman's feelings without delving deeper into the issue. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the woman's feelings and generalizes the behavior as typical for all 2-year-olds without addressing her individual situation.
Question 3 of 9
What is the most appropriate action when a client with suspected meningitis presents with a positive Brudzinski sign?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, perform a lumbar puncture. A positive Brudzinski sign indicates meningeal irritation, a hallmark of meningitis. A lumbar puncture is the gold standard for diagnosing meningitis by analyzing cerebrospinal fluid. Placing the client on their back without proper diagnosis or treatment delays could lead to serious complications. Option B is incorrect as antibiotics should be given after confirming the diagnosis. Option C is partially correct but does not address the need for a definitive diagnostic test. Option A is incorrect as pain medication alone does not address the underlying cause of meningitis.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who is post-operative following an abdominal surgery. The nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encouraging early ambulation to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Early ambulation helps prevent blood clot formation in the legs, reducing the risk of deep vein thrombosis post-surgery. It also promotes circulation and aids in preventing complications like pneumonia. Administering pain medication (B) is important, but preventing complications should take priority. Providing wound care (C) is essential but not the top priority. Encouraging a high-protein diet (D) is beneficial for healing, but immediate post-operative mobility is crucial for preventing complications.
Question 5 of 9
Which quadrant of the abdomen is tender in suspected appendicitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct quadrant for tenderness in suspected appendicitis is the lower right quadrant (Choice C). This is because the appendix is located in the lower right abdomen. Appendicitis typically presents with pain starting around the navel and then localizing to the lower right quadrant. The other choices, upper right (Choice A), upper left (Choice B), and lower left (Choice D) are incorrect as they do not correspond to the typical location of the appendix. Upper right quadrant is where the liver and gallbladder are situated, upper left quadrant contains the stomach and spleen, and lower left quadrant has the colon and left ovary/testis.
Question 6 of 9
Acyclovir is the drug of choice for which condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acyclovir is a nucleoside analog antiviral drug that is specifically effective against herpes simplex virus (HSV) types 1 and 2, as well as varicella-zoster virus (VZV). The drug works by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis. HSV and VZV are both members of the herpes virus family, and acyclovir is most commonly prescribed for infections caused by these viruses. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A (HIV) is incorrect because acyclovir is not effective against HIV. Choice C (CMV) is incorrect because acyclovir is less effective against cytomegalovirus (CMV) compared to HSV and VZV. Choice D (influenza A viruses) is incorrect because acyclovir is not indicated for the treatment of influenza viruses.
Question 7 of 9
What assessment framework provides additional modesty for clients, such as teenage girls?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Head to toe. This assessment framework allows for modesty by assessing one body part at a time, starting from the head down to the toe. This approach ensures clients, especially teenage girls, feel comfortable and respected during the assessment process. Other choices like A (Body systems) involve assessing multiple body parts simultaneously, potentially compromising modesty. Functional assessment (B) focuses on assessing specific functions rather than individual body parts, which may not address the modesty concern. Focused assessment (C) targets a specific area of concern, which may not provide a comprehensive evaluation while also potentially overlooking modesty concerns.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following statements is true regarding respect for differences?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because conveying respect for differences helps build trust and encourages patients to share their perspectives openly. This fosters a positive patient-provider relationship and enhances communication. Choice A is incorrect as patients have unique behaviors. Choice C is incorrect as cultural expectations do not fully explain individual differences. Choice D is incorrect as expressing one's culture is not solely dependent on exposure to Canadian values.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is teaching a patient with diabetes about managing blood glucose levels. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates the need for further education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stopping insulin once blood glucose is normal is incorrect as insulin is crucial for managing diabetes even when blood glucose levels are within the target range. Insulin helps regulate blood sugar levels consistently, and stopping it abruptly can lead to hyperglycemia. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements indicating good diabetes management practices. Monitoring blood glucose levels, exercising regularly, and following a balanced diet are essential for controlling blood sugar levels and overall health.