A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of terminal cancer. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse that the client is ready to hear information regarding palliative care?

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Question 1 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of terminal cancer. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse that the client is ready to hear information regarding palliative care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's statement demonstrates a desire for comfort-focused care, which is the essence of palliative care for terminal cancer patients. The client is expressing a clear preference for measures that prioritize comfort and quality of life over aggressive treatment. This indicates readiness to receive information about palliative care. Choice A is incorrect because the client mentions chemotherapy for a cure, indicating a focus on curative treatment rather than comfort care. Choice B is incorrect as the client seems to be expressing a desire for a quick end to their suffering, which may not align with palliative care goals. Choice D is incorrect because the client is expressing unrealistic optimism about recovery, which may hinder acceptance of palliative care.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client who reports difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maintain a consistent time to wake up each day. This recommendation helps regulate the body's internal clock, promoting a consistent sleep-wake cycle. By waking up at the same time every day, the client's body will naturally adjust and improve their ability to fall asleep at night. Watching TV in bed (A) can disrupt sleep due to the blue light emitted. Drinking hot cocoa (B) may not be ideal close to bedtime due to the caffeine content. Exercising before bed (D) can stimulate the body and make it harder to fall asleep.

Question 3 of 9

One of the critical elements in interviewing is:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Developing an interview guide. This is critical because it helps structure the interview, ensuring all relevant topics are covered and consistency in questioning. It helps the interviewer stay focused and gather necessary information effectively. A: Time management is important but not a critical element. B: Involving others can be beneficial but not essential. C: Choosing the location is important for comfort but not as critical as having a structured guide.

Question 4 of 9

What is a potential benefit of social media?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Connecting with the public to encourage healthy behaviors. Social media can be used as a powerful tool to reach a large audience and promote positive health behaviors and choices. By engaging with the public through social media platforms, healthcare professionals can share valuable information, tips, and resources to encourage healthier lifestyles. This can lead to increased awareness, education, and motivation for individuals to make healthier choices. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they may have some benefits, they do not directly address the potential benefit of using social media to encourage healthy behaviors in the general public.

Question 5 of 9

Which theory views motivation as learning?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reinforcement. Reinforcement theory views motivation as learning through the use of positive or negative reinforcement to increase the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. By associating certain behaviors with rewards or punishments, individuals learn to be motivated to engage in those behaviors. The other choices, B: Process, C: Operant, and D: Conditioning, are incorrect because they do not specifically focus on motivation as a learned behavior through reinforcement. Process theory emphasizes cognitive processes, Operant theory focuses on shaping behavior through consequences, and Conditioning theory is a general term for learning through associations.

Question 6 of 9

If a task is delegated to someone, they need to be granted the ___________ to complete the task.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Authority. When a task is delegated, the individual needs the authority to make decisions and take actions to complete it effectively. Authority grants the power to make decisions, allocate resources, and enforce actions. Planning (B) involves creating a roadmap for achieving goals, organizing (C) involves arranging resources and tasks, and controlling (D) involves monitoring and ensuring tasks are on track. However, without authority, the delegated individual may face obstacles in executing the task. Therefore, the most essential aspect for successful delegation is granting authority.

Question 7 of 9

Which agency reviews whether an organization meets its own criteria for staffing?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO). JCAHO is responsible for accrediting healthcare organizations and ensuring they meet specific standards, including staffing requirements. They review whether an organization meets its own criteria for staffing to ensure quality care. The other choices (ANA, PCSs, NCHs) are not specifically focused on accrediting organizations or evaluating staffing criteria, making them incorrect options.

Question 8 of 9

After the nurse has finished teaching a patient who has a new prescription for exenatide (Byetta), which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement indicates effective teaching because taking aspirin at least an hour before exenatide (Byetta) helps prevent any potential interactions between the two medications. By understanding the importance of timing, the patient shows comprehension of medication management and potential risks. Incorrect choices: A: This choice is incorrect because exenatide is known to reduce appetite, not increase hunger. B: This choice is incorrect because hypoglycemia is still a risk with exenatide, especially if used with other medications that lower blood sugar. D: This choice is incorrect because exenatide is injected, not taken as a pill, and should be taken before meals, not with breakfast.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse navigator?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a nurse navigator's role is to coordinate complex care for patients by guiding them through the healthcare system, connecting them with resources, and ensuring continuity of care. Providing direct patient care (A) is typically the responsibility of nurses, not nurse navigators. Assisting with administrative tasks (C) is more aligned with roles such as medical assistants or administrative staff. Managing clinical trials (D) involves research and regulatory responsibilities that are distinct from the care coordination focus of a nurse navigator. Therefore, the best description of a nurse navigator's role is coordinating complex care.

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