A nurse is caring for a client who is taking clopidogrel to prevent stent restenosis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Thrombocytopenia. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Therefore, monitoring for thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet count, is crucial to assess the drug's effectiveness and potential side effects. Hyperuricemia (A) is not directly associated with clopidogrel use. Hyponatremia (B) is not a common adverse reaction of clopidogrel. Lymphocytopenia (C) is not typically linked to clopidogrel and is more commonly seen with other medications or conditions.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inhibiting cyclooxygenase action in platelets. Aspirin inhibits cyclooxygenase, specifically COX-1, in platelets, leading to the inhibition of thromboxane A2 production. Thromboxane A2 is a potent platelet aggregator. By inhibiting its production, aspirin reduces platelet aggregation, thus reducing the risk of cardiovascular events. A: Activating thromboxane A2 - This is incorrect because aspirin actually inhibits the production of thromboxane A2. B: Blocking adenosine diphosphate receptor agonists - This is incorrect because aspirin primarily works through the inhibition of cyclooxygenase, not adenosine diphosphate receptors. C: Suppressing specific clotting factors - This is incorrect because aspirin's primary mechanism of action is through platelet inhibition, not through suppressing clotting factors.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Normocytic normochromic anemia is characterized by normal-sized red blood cells with normal hemoglobin content. Pregnancy is associated with this type of anemia due to increased blood volume and iron demands. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) is typically microcytic hypochromic. Primaquine (choice B) is not known to cause normocytic normochromic anemia. Sickle cell disease (choice D) results in hemolytic anemia with abnormal red blood cell morphology. Thus, the correct answer is C as it aligns with the characteristics of normocytic normochromic anemia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In microcytic hypochromic anemia, the correct answer is D because red cells are smaller (microcytic) and have a pale large central pallor (hypochromic). This is due to decreased hemoglobin content and iron deficiency. Choice A is incorrect as red cells are smaller, not larger. Choice B is incorrect as the red blood cell count is typically decreased in this type of anemia. Choice C is incorrect as both hematocrit and mean corpuscular hemoglobin are decreased in microcytic hypochromic anemia, not normal. Therefore, the correct answer is D based on the characteristic features of microcytic hypochromic anemia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Platelets are responsible for clot formation in the body. When a wound occurs, platelets adhere to the site and release chemicals to initiate clotting. They then aggregate to form a plug, stopping bleeding. Plasma carries platelets but is not directly involved in clot formation. Red blood cells transport oxygen but do not participate in clotting. White blood cells are part of the immune system and do not play a role in clot formation. Therefore, platelets are the correct choice for clot formation in this scenario.