A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The client's platelet count is 25,000/mm3. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Questions 154

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Rn Exit Exam Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. The client's platelet count is 25,000/mm3. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Clients with a low platelet count are at risk of bleeding and infection. Monitoring the client's temperature every 4 hours is crucial to detect early signs of infection, as they may not be able to mount a typical immune response due to their compromised platelet count. Administering aspirin (choice A) is contraindicated in clients with low platelet counts as it can further increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring urine output (choice C) and checking for stool in a colostomy bag (choice D) are important aspects of care but are not the priority in a client with low platelet count.

Question 2 of 9

Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient taking digoxin?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels. Patients taking digoxin are at risk of developing toxicity due to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious arrhythmias. Monitoring calcium levels (Choice B) is not the primary concern in patients taking digoxin. While calcium levels play a role in cardiac function, hypocalcemia is not directly associated with digoxin toxicity. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern in a patient taking digoxin. Monitoring magnesium levels (Choice D) is also essential, but hypomagnesemia is not as directly linked to digoxin toxicity as hypokalemia.

Question 3 of 9

Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of angina and reports chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a 12-lead ECG. In a client with a history of angina and reporting chest pain, the priority action is to assess for myocardial infarction, which is best done through an ECG. Administering oxygen, nitroglycerin, or notifying the provider can be important actions but obtaining an ECG takes precedence in evaluating the client's condition.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse is teaching a client who has diabetes mellitus about foot care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to 'Wear cotton socks to keep your feet dry.' This is essential in diabetes mellitus as moisture can lead to infections. Choice A is incorrect as soaking feet in warm water can actually cause dryness and skin breakdown, which is harmful in diabetes. Choice C is incorrect as applying lotion between the toes can create excess moisture, increasing the risk of fungal infections. Choice D is incorrect as cutting toenails in a rounded shape can lead to ingrown toenails; clients with diabetes should cut their nails straight across to prevent complications.

Question 6 of 9

A client who is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube needs preventive measures to avoid aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check gastric residual volumes every 4 hours. This action helps prevent aspiration by ensuring the stomach is emptying properly, reducing the risk of reflux and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees can help prevent aspiration by promoting proper digestion and reducing the risk of regurgitation. Administering the feeding at room temperature is important for patient comfort but does not directly prevent aspiration. Flushing the feeding tube with water every 8 hours is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration.

Question 7 of 9

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving foot care education from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Trim toenails straight across.' In clients with diabetes, trimming toenails straight across is important to prevent ingrown toenails, reducing the risk of infections. Soaking feet in warm water daily (choice A) can lead to dry skin and potentially cause skin breakdown in diabetic clients. While wearing cotton socks (choice B) is beneficial for good foot hygiene, it is not as crucial as trimming toenails correctly. Applying lotion to feet after bathing (choice C) is helpful for moisturizing the skin, but the emphasis should be on nail care to prevent complications like ingrown toenails.

Question 8 of 9

A client has a nasogastric tube and is receiving intermittent enteral feedings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients with a nasogastric tube receiving intermittent enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees during feedings. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration of the feeding contents. Administering a bolus feeding over 10 minutes (choice A) may not prevent aspiration as effectively as elevating the head of the bed. Flushing the tube with sterile water before feedings (choice C) is important for tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (choice D) is not the recommended action to prevent aspiration; elevating the head of the bed is more effective.

Question 9 of 9

A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with sepsis. Which of the following laboratory results indicates that the client is developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, decreased platelet count. In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), there is widespread activation of clotting factors leading to the formation of multiple blood clots throughout the body, which can deplete platelets. A decreased platelet count is a hallmark of DIC. Elevated hemoglobin (choice A) and elevated white blood cell count (choice B) are not specific indicators of DIC. While fibrinogen levels (choice C) can be decreased in DIC due to consumption, a decreased platelet count is a more specific and early sign of DIC development.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days