ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The nurse should identify that which of the following client reports is an indication of hypocalcemia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Numbness and tingling of the fingers.' Post-thyroidectomy, hypocalcemia is a concern due to potential damage to the parathyroid glands that regulate calcium levels. Numbness and tingling of the fingers are classic signs of hypocalcemia. Constipation (Choice A) is not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Frequent urination (Choice B) is more indicative of conditions like diabetes or a urinary tract infection. Increased thirst (Choice D) is commonly seen in conditions such as diabetes insipidus or uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, not specifically related to hypocalcemia.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse use to monitor the client's therapeutic response to the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: INR. The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the laboratory test used to monitor the therapeutic response of warfarin. It helps ensure that the client's clotting time is within the desired range to prevent complications such as excessive bleeding or clotting. Choice B, aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy but rather for assessing heparin therapy. Choice C, Platelet count, assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specifically used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, Hemoglobin A1C, is a test used to monitor long-term blood sugar control in diabetic patients and is not relevant to monitoring warfarin therapy.
Question 3 of 5
A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.
Question 4 of 5
A client is 2 hr postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After a total hip arthroplasty, it is crucial to prevent hip dislocation. Placing an abduction pillow between the client's legs helps maintain proper alignment of the hip joint and prevents adduction, which could lead to dislocation. Therefore, choice B is the correct action. Choice A is incorrect because positioning the client supine with a pillow between the legs does not provide the necessary abduction to prevent dislocation. Choice C, placing a pillow under the client's knees, does not address the need for abduction. Choice D, positioning the client's legs in adduction, is incorrect as adduction increases the risk of hip dislocation following hip arthroplasty.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease and a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate. This medication promotes potassium excretion and helps lower serum potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia, which is indicated by a high potassium level. Sodium bicarbonate (choice A) is not used to treat hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate (choice C) and calcium carbonate (choice D) are used to manage hyperkalemia by stabilizing cell membranes but are not the initial treatment choice for lowering potassium levels.