A nurse is caring for a client who is G1P0 and 36 weeks gestation who has been diagnosed with severe pre-eclampsia. Her blood pressure is 165/110. The physician has ordered hydralazine. The nurse knows she should do which of the following when administering this medication?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should get baseline blood pressure and pulse and monitor frequently during administration to assess the effectiveness and safety of the medication. This is crucial in managing severe pre-eclampsia. Choice A is incorrect because the client should be positioned on her left side to prevent vena cava compression, not supine with the head of the bed elevated. Choice C is incorrect because administering medication every 5 minutes without proper monitoring can lead to adverse effects like hypotension. Choice D is incorrect because hydralazine does not cause a positive direct Coombs test result. It is important for the nurse to provide accurate information to the client.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because progesterone is recommended for women with a history of preterm birth due to cervical incompetency. Progesterone helps to reduce the risk of another preterm birth by supporting the cervix and preventing it from opening too early. It is important for the nurse to discuss the action and side effects of progesterone with the patient to ensure informed decision-making. Choice A is incorrect as an abdominal ultrasound is not directly related to managing cervical incompetency. Choice B is incorrect as positioning the patient on her left side does not address the issue of cervical incompetency. Choice D is also incorrect as monitoring blood pressure is not the primary intervention for managing cervical incompetency in this case.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a urine dipstick showing protein of 3+ indicates significant proteinuria, a sign of preeclampsia in pregnancy. Preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby, such as eclampsia and fetal growth restriction. The nurse should further assess the client's blood pressure, perform additional tests for preeclampsia, and closely monitor the client's condition. Choice A: Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are within normal range for pregnancy and do not require immediate intervention. Choice B: Blood pressure of 130/80 is slightly elevated but not concerning at this gestational age. Close monitoring is recommended. Choice C: Slight pedal swelling is common in pregnancy due to fluid retention and usually does not indicate a serious issue.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Urine for glucose and ketones. In gestational diabetes, monitoring urine for glucose and ketones is crucial to assess blood sugar control and ketosis. Glucose in urine indicates hyperglycemia, and ketones indicate inadequate insulin and potential ketoacidosis. Monitoring edema (choice A) is not specific to gestational diabetes. Blood pressure, pulse, and respiration (choice B) are important but not specific to gestational diabetes. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit (choice D) does not directly reflect blood sugar control in gestational diabetes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A (Blood pressure of 155/95) because an elevated blood pressure indicates worsening pre-eclampsia. In pre-eclampsia, high blood pressure is a key indicator of worsening condition, potentially leading to eclampsia or seizures if left untreated. Choices B (Urinary output is greater than 30 mL/hr), C (Deep tendon reflexes +2), and D (Client complains of blurred vision) are not indicative of worsening pre-eclampsia. Increased urinary output, normal deep tendon reflexes, and blurred vision are common symptoms in pre-eclampsia, but they do not necessarily signify worsening of the condition.