ATI RN
The Hematologic System ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin factor VIII therapy to treat hemophilia A. When administering factor VIII, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because having emergency equipment ready is crucial due to the risk of allergic reactions or complications associated with factor VIII therapy. This includes supplies for managing anaphylaxis or other adverse reactions, such as epinephrine, antihistamines, and airway support. Administering the powdered form orally (A) is incorrect as factor VIII is given intravenously. Premedicating with aspirin (B) is contraindicated as aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding. Administering it via rapid IV bolus (C) is dangerous as it can lead to adverse effects like hypotension or clotting. Having emergency equipment ready ensures prompt and effective management of any potential complications.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is administering epoetin intravenously to a client who has renal failure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer via IV bolus over 1 to 3 min. This is the correct action because epoetin is typically administered intravenously over a specified time frame to prevent adverse reactions such as rapid changes in blood pressure or heart rate. Shaking the vial before using (option A) is unnecessary and may lead to frothing. Diluting the drug with D5W (option C) is not recommended for administration as an IV bolus. Saving the used vial for the next dose (option D) is incorrect and violates medication safety protocols. Administering via IV bolus over 1 to 3 min ensures safe and effective delivery of the medication.
Question 3 of 5
The International Normalized Ratio (INR) was developed for the purpose of
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: 1. INR standardizes PT results across labs. 2. Warfarin therapy requires close monitoring. 3. INR helps adjust warfarin dose accurately. 4. INR is not specific to heparin, oral anticoagulants, or screening for clotting system abnormalities. Summary: A: Heparin is monitored by aPTT. B: Oral anticoagulant therapy is monitored by INR. C: Intrinsic clotting abnormalities are not detected by INR. D: Warfarin therapy monitoring is standardized by INR.
Question 4 of 5
According to the FAB classification, the L2 stage is characterized by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because according to the FAB classification, the L2 stage is characterized by large homogenous blasts with scanty nucleoli and a higher nucleus to cytoplasm ratio. This stage represents acute lymphoblastic leukemia with a high risk of relapse. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the L1 stage. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the L3 stage. Choice D is incorrect as it does not accurately describe the characteristics of the L2 stage.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is concerned that a patient is demonstrating signs of red blood cell production. What laboratory value did the nurse most likely use to make this decision?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bilirubin. Elevated levels of bilirubin can indicate increased red blood cell breakdown or hemolysis, prompting the body to produce more red blood cells to compensate for the loss. Iron (A) is involved in red blood cell production but is not a direct indicator. Thrombin (C) is a clotting factor, not related to red blood cell production. Intrinsic factor (D) is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption, not directly linked to red blood cell production. Therefore, Bilirubin is the most likely laboratory value used to indicate increased red blood cell production.