A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin alteplase therapy to treat pulmonary embolism. Which of the following drugs should the nurse have available in the event of a severe adverse reaction?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale: Aminocaproic acid is used to manage bleeding complications associated with thrombolytic therapy, like alteplase. In case of severe adverse reaction such as uncontrolled bleeding, aminocaproic acid can help by inhibiting fibrinolysis. Vitamin K (A) is not used for this purpose. Protamine (C) is used to reverse heparin anticoagulation, not for thrombolytic therapy. Deferoxamine (D) is used for iron toxicity, not related to thrombolytic therapy. Thus, having aminocaproic acid available is crucial for managing potential adverse reactions during alteplase therapy.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reticulocyte count. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells. In megaloblastic anemia, there is a decrease in red blood cell production due to a deficiency in folic acid. Monitoring reticulocyte count helps determine if the folic acid treatment is increasing red blood cell production. A: Amylase level is not relevant to monitoring the effectiveness of folic acid in treating megaloblastic anemia. C: C-reactive protein is a marker for inflammation and not specific to monitoring anemia treatment. D: Creatinine clearance is used to assess kidney function, not the effectiveness of folic acid in treating anemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rapid pulse. Hemorrhage is a potential complication of anticoagulant therapy with heparin due to the increased risk of bleeding. A rapid pulse can indicate hypovolemia from blood loss, a common sign of hemorrhage. Yellowing of the sclera (choice B) is a sign of jaundice, not directly related to hemorrhage. Elevated blood pressure (choice C) is not typically associated with hemorrhage. Pale-colored stools (choice D) can be indicative of liver or gallbladder issues, but not specifically hemorrhage. Overall, a rapid pulse is the most relevant finding to indicate possible hemorrhage in a client on heparin therapy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Secondary neutropenia in adults is often a part of general pancytopenia, which involves a decrease in all three blood cell types. This can be caused by factors such as bone marrow suppression from chemotherapy, radiation therapy, or certain medications. Neutropenia is not typically congenital or familial in adults, and anti-hypertensive drugs are not commonly known to directly cause secondary neutropenia. Therefore, the correct answer is C as it aligns with the common etiology of secondary neutropenia in adults.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pancytopenia. Aplastic anemia is characterized by a decrease in all blood cell types (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets), leading to pancytopenia. This is due to bone marrow failure, resulting in decreased production of blood cells. Erythrocytosis (B) is an increase in red blood cells, which is the opposite of what is seen in aplastic anemia. Bone marrow hypercellularity (C) is not typically observed in aplastic anemia, as the bone marrow is usually hypocellular. Reticulocytosis (D) is an increase in immature red blood cells and is not a characteristic finding in aplastic anemia where there is decreased production of all blood cell types.