A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin alteplase therapy to treat pulmonary embolism. Which of the following drugs should the nurse have available in the event of a severe adverse reaction?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Aminocaproic acid. This drug is a fibrinolytic inhibitor that can be used to manage bleeding complications associated with alteplase therapy. It helps to prevent excessive bleeding by inhibiting the breakdown of blood clots. Having aminocaproic acid available is crucial in case the client experiences severe bleeding as a result of alteplase therapy. A: Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, a blood thinner, and is not indicated for managing bleeding due to alteplase therapy. C: Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin, not alteplase, and is not indicated for managing bleeding due to alteplase therapy. D: Deferoxamine is an antidote for iron poisoning and is not indicated for managing bleeding due to alteplase therapy. In summary, aminocaproic acid is the correct choice as it helps manage bleeding complications associated with alteplase therapy

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reticulocyte count. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells, and monitoring their count can help determine the effectiveness of folic acid in treating megaloblastic anemia. Increased reticulocyte count indicates improved production of red blood cells. Amylase level, C-reactive protein, and creatinine clearance are not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of folic acid in treating megaloblastic anemia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rapid pulse. When a client is undergoing anticoagulant therapy with heparin, the nurse should monitor for signs of hemorrhage. A rapid pulse can indicate internal bleeding, a common complication of anticoagulant therapy. Other choices such as B: Yellowing of the sclera, C: Elevated blood pressure, and D: Pale-colored stools are not typically associated with hemorrhage. Yellowing of the sclera may indicate jaundice, elevated blood pressure may be related to other conditions, and pale-colored stools may indicate liver or gallbladder issues. Rapid pulse is the most pertinent finding related to hemorrhage in this context.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Part of general pancytopenia. Secondary neutropenia in adults can occur as part of general pancytopenia, where there is a decrease in all blood cell types. This can be caused by various conditions such as infections, medications, autoimmune disorders, and bone marrow disorders. Rationale: A: Congenital is incorrect because congenital neutropenia refers to a condition present at birth, not secondary neutropenia. B: Anti-hypertensive drugs may cause drug-induced neutropenia, but it is not the primary cause of secondary neutropenia in adults. D: Familial neutropenia is a genetic disorder that runs in families and is not a common cause of secondary neutropenia in adults.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: 1. Aplastic anemia is characterized by bone marrow failure, leading to decreased production of all blood cell types. 2. Pancytopenia refers to low levels of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, consistent with aplastic anemia. 3. Erythrocytosis is an increase in red blood cell count, contradictory to the reduced production in aplastic anemia. 4. Bone marrow hypercellularity indicates increased cellularity, opposite to the hypocellularity seen in aplastic anemia. 5. Reticulocytosis is an elevated number of immature red blood cells, which is not typically seen in the context of bone marrow failure in aplastic anemia. Summary: A is correct as it aligns with the characteristic pancytopenia in aplastic anemia. B, C, and D are incorrect due to their inconsistency with the pathophysiology of the condition.