ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hour postoperative following a thoracentesis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tracheal deviation is the correct finding to report to the provider. It can indicate a pneumothorax, which is a serious complication following a thoracentesis that requires immediate attention. Oxygen saturation of 96% is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate issue. A pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10 is subjective and may not be related to a serious complication. A temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F) is slightly elevated but not a priority over tracheal deviation in this context.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a gastric bypass. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a postoperative client, a urine output of 30 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it indicates oliguria, which may suggest dehydration or kidney impairment. Adequate urine output is essential for monitoring renal function and overall fluid status. A heart rate of 78/min is within the normal range for an adult. An oxygen saturation of 95% is acceptable and indicates adequate oxygenation. Serosanguineous wound drainage is expected in the early postoperative period and is not a cause for immediate concern unless it becomes excessive or changes character.
Question 3 of 9
What is the most important nursing action for a patient experiencing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering anticoagulants is the most crucial nursing action for a patient experiencing a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Anticoagulants help prevent further clot formation and reduce the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. Encouraging ambulation, applying compression stockings, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important interventions in managing DVT, but administering anticoagulants takes priority as it directly targets the clotting process and prevents clot progression.
Question 4 of 9
What is the best intervention for a patient with dehydration?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering IV fluids is the best intervention for a patient with dehydration because it is the fastest and most effective way to rehydrate the body. IV fluids can quickly restore fluid volume and electrolyte balance in severe cases of dehydration. Providing oral fluids or encouraging fluid intake may not be sufficient for patients with moderate to severe dehydration, as they may have impaired gastrointestinal absorption. While electrolytes are essential for rehydration, administering them alone without fluid replacement may not address the primary issue of fluid loss in dehydration.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following findings is the priority to report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy, and should be reported immediately. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are important assessments but are not as critical as managing serum potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide for heart failure.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client with a history of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Loss of interest in usual activities. Clients with PTSD often exhibit symptoms such as numbing, which can manifest as a loss of interest in activities they once enjoyed. Choice A, dependence on family and friends, is more indicative of seeking support rather than a direct symptom of PTSD. Choice C, ritualistic behavior, is more commonly associated with conditions like obsessive-compulsive disorder. Choice D, passive-aggressive behavior, is not a typical finding in clients with PTSD.
Question 7 of 9
What is the first intervention when a patient has difficulty breathing post-surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the initial intervention for a patient experiencing breathing difficulties post-surgery. Providing oxygen helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Repositioning the patient, checking oxygen saturation, and elevating the head of the bed are important interventions but administering oxygen takes precedence in addressing hypoxia and respiratory compromise.
Question 8 of 9
How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient receiving heparin therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. aPTT monitoring is essential for assessing the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin, ensuring the patient is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding. Monitoring platelet count (Choice B) is important for assessing for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia but is not the primary monitoring parameter for heparin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice C) and calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing the therapeutic effectiveness or potential side effects of heparin therapy.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's admission laboratory results. Which of the following findings requires further evaluation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elevated creatinine level, such as 1.8, suggests potential kidney dysfunction, requiring further assessment. Sodium level within normal limits (135-145 mEq/L), hemoglobin level of 15 g/dL, and potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L are all within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns. Therefore, they do not require further evaluation at this time.