ATI RN
ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has the following laboratory results: potassium 3.4 mEq/L, magnesium 1.8 mEq/L, calcium 8.5 mEq/L, sodium 144 mEq/L. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Read food labels to determine sodium content. The nurse should assess the client's sodium level of 144 mEq/L, which is slightly above the normal range. High sodium intake can lead to fluid retention, hypertension, and other health issues. By reading food labels to determine sodium content, the nurse can identify sources of high sodium intake in the client's diet and provide appropriate dietary recommendations. This assessment is crucial in managing the client's sodium levels and overall health. Assessing the client's dietary intake of foods high in potassium (Choice A) is not the priority in this case since the client's potassium level is within the normal range. Assessing the client's neuromuscular status (Choice B) is important but not the first priority when considering the electrolyte imbalances present. Assessing the client's fluid intake and output (Choice C) is also important but does not address the immediate concern related to the client's elevated sodium level.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is planning care for a client who is hyperventilating. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.30, PaO2 94 mm Hg, PaCO2 31 mm Hg, and HCO3 26 mEq/L. Which question should the nurse ask when developing this clients plan of care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "You appear anxious. What is causing your distress?" because hyperventilation can be triggered by emotional distress or anxiety. By addressing the underlying cause of the hyperventilation, the nurse can provide appropriate interventions to help the client manage their anxiety and subsequently reduce the hyperventilation episodes. A: "Do you take any over-the-counter medications?" - This question is not directly related to addressing the client's anxiety or distress, which is the primary concern in hyperventilation. C: "Do you have a history of anxiety attacks?" - While relevant to understanding the client's medical history, this question does not address the immediate cause of hyperventilation in this specific situation. D: "You are breathing fast. Is this causing you to feel light-headed?" - This question focuses on the physical symptoms of hyperventilation rather than exploring the emotional or psychological triggers, which are essential in managing hyperventilation caused by anxiety.
Question 3 of 9
After administering 40 mEq of potassium chloride, a nurse evaluates the clients response. Which manifestations indicate that treatment is improving the clients hypokalemia? (Select all tha do not t apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: U waves present on the electrocardiogram (ECG). U waves are indicative of hypokalemia, and their presence indicates that the potassium chloride treatment is improving the condition. Explanation: 1. A: Strong productive cough - This manifestation is not related to potassium levels and does not indicate improvement in hypokalemia. 2. B: Active bowel sounds - While hypokalemia can cause gastrointestinal issues, active bowel sounds alone do not specifically indicate improvement in potassium levels. 3. C: U waves present on ECG - U waves are a classic ECG finding in hypokalemia. The presence of U waves indicates a positive response to potassium chloride treatment. 4. D: No response provided - Not applicable. In summary, the presence of U waves on the ECG is a key indicator of improvement in hypokalemia, while the other manifestations do not directly relate to potassium levels.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is preparing to insert a peripheral IV catheter into a patient who will require fluids and IV antibiotics. How should the nurse always start the process of insertion?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: Asking the patient about allergies to latex or iodine is crucial before starting the IV insertion process. This step ensures patient safety and prevents potential allergic reactions. Knowing the patient's allergies allows the nurse to select appropriate materials for the procedure, reducing the risk of complications. Summary of Other Choices: A: Leaving one hand ungloved is not recommended as it compromises infection control practices. B: Cleansing the skin with normal saline is important but should come after confirming allergies to latex or iodine. D: Removing excessive hair from the site is unnecessary and not a standard practice for starting the IV insertion process.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse educator is reviewing peripheral IV insertion with a group of novice nurses. How should these nurses be encouraged to deal with excess hair at the intended site?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clip the hair in the area. Clipping the hair is the most appropriate option as it reduces the risk of infection during IV insertion by minimizing the presence of bacteria that may be trapped in the hair. Shaving (B) can cause micro-abrasions leading to increased infection risk. Leaving the hair intact (A) can also trap bacteria. Using a depilatory (D) can cause skin irritation and should be avoided. In summary, clipping the hair is the best option to maintain a clean and safe environment for IV insertion.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse in the medical ICU is caring for a patient who is in respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation. What diagnosis could the patient have that could cause inadequate ventilation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Guillain-Barr syndrome can cause inadequate ventilation due to paralysis of the respiratory muscles. This results in respiratory acidosis. Endocarditis, multiple myeloma, and amphetamine overdose do not directly affect ventilation. Endocarditis is an infection of the heart valves, multiple myeloma is a cancer of plasma cells, and amphetamine overdose primarily affects the central nervous system and cardiovascular system, not ventilation. Therefore, Guillain-Barr syndrome is the most likely diagnosis in this case.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis and is at risk for an acid-base imbalance. For which manifestation of this acid-base imbalance should the nurse assess?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Kussmaul respirations. In acute pancreatitis, metabolic acidosis can occur due to the release of pancreatic enzymes. Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breaths that help to blow off excess carbon dioxide in response to acidosis, aiming to correct the pH imbalance. Agitation (A) is a nonspecific symptom and not specific to acid-base imbalances. Seizures (C) are more commonly associated with electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia or hypocalcemia. Positive Chvostek's sign (D) is a clinical sign of hypocalcemia, not directly related to acid-base imbalances in acute pancreatitis.
Question 8 of 9
A gerontologic nurse is teaching students about the high incidence and prevalence of dehydration in older adults. What factors contribute to this phenomenon? Select all that do not apply.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased conservation of sodium. Older adults tend to have an increased conservation of sodium, leading to fluid retention and decreased fluid intake, which can contribute to dehydration. A: Decreased kidney mass is incorrect because it is a factor that can contribute to decreased kidney function but not directly linked to dehydration. B: Decreased renal blood flow can impact kidney function but is not a direct cause of dehydration in older adults. C: Decreased excretion of potassium is not a factor that directly contributes to dehydration in older adults.
Question 9 of 9
The baroreceptors, located in the left atrium and in the carotid and aortic arches, respond to changes in the circulating blood volume and regulate sympathetic and parasympathetic neural activity as well as endocrine activities. Sympathetic stimulation constricts renal arterioles, causing what effect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decrease in glomerular filtration. Sympathetic stimulation constricts renal arterioles, leading to decreased blood flow to the kidneys. This reduction in blood flow decreases the glomerular filtration rate, impacting the kidney's ability to filter blood and produce urine. The constriction of renal arterioles does not directly affect the release of aldosterone (choice A), filtration in the Loop of Henle (choice B), or the reabsorption of sodium (choice C). The primary effect of sympathetic stimulation on renal arterioles is to decrease glomerular filtration by reducing blood flow to the kidneys.