ATI RN
ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has the following laboratory results: potassium 3.4 mEq/L, magnesium 1.8 mEq/L, calcium 8.5 mEq/L, sodium 144 mEq/L. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Read food labels to determine sodium content. The nurse should assess the client's sodium level of 144 mEq/L, which is slightly above the normal range. High sodium intake can lead to fluid retention, hypertension, and other health issues. By reading food labels to determine sodium content, the nurse can identify sources of high sodium intake in the client's diet and provide appropriate dietary recommendations. This assessment is crucial in managing the client's sodium levels and overall health. Assessing the client's dietary intake of foods high in potassium (Choice A) is not the priority in this case since the client's potassium level is within the normal range. Assessing the client's neuromuscular status (Choice B) is important but not the first priority when considering the electrolyte imbalances present. Assessing the client's fluid intake and output (Choice C) is also important but does not address the immediate concern related to the client's elevated sodium level.
Question 2 of 9
You are working on a burns unit, and one of your acutely ill patients is exhibiting signs and symptoms of third spacing. Based on this change in status, you should expect the patient to exhibit signs and symptoms of what imbalance?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: Third spacing occurs when fluid shifts from the intravascular space to interstitial spaces, leading to hypovolemia. This results in decreased circulating blood volume, leading to signs of hypovolemia such as tachycardia, hypotension, and low urine output. Metabolic alkalosis, hypermagnesemia, and hypercalcemia are not directly related to third spacing and are not the expected imbalances in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
A patient who is being treated for pneumonia starts complaining of sudden shortness of breath. An arterial blood gas (ABG) is drawn. The ABG has the following values: pH 7.21, PaCO2 64 mm Hg, HCO3 = 24 mm Hg. What does the ABG reflect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory acidosis. A low pH (7.21) indicates acidosis. The elevated PaCO2 (64 mm Hg) indicates respiratory acidosis, as high CO2 levels lead to carbonic acid formation, decreasing pH. The normal HCO3 (24 mm Hg) suggests compensation for the respiratory acidosis. Other choices are incorrect as they do not align with the ABG values provided. Metabolic alkalosis (B) would have a high pH and HCO3, respiratory alkalosis (C) would have a high pH and low PaCO2, and metabolic acidosis (D) would have a low pH and HCO3.
Question 4 of 9
.A nurse assesses a clients peripheral IV site, and notices edema and tenderness above the site. Which action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action is to stop the infusion of intravenous fluids. Edema and tenderness above the IV site suggest infiltration, where fluid leaks into surrounding tissues. Stopping the infusion prevents further damage and helps prevent complications. Applying cold compresses (A) may not address the underlying issue. Elevating the extremity (B) is helpful for other conditions like swelling due to dependent edema, not infiltration. Flushing the catheter (C) can exacerbate the issue by pushing more fluid into the tissue.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because intravenous D5W is a hypotonic solution that can lead to dilutional hyponatremia. D5W does not contain sodium, so it can cause a decrease in serum sodium levels. Clients on NPO status receiving D5W are at higher risk due to lack of sodium intake. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly contribute to hyponatremia. Sulfonamide antibiotics, ibuprofen, and digoxin are not typically associated with causing hyponatremia. Therefore, assessing the client on NPO status receiving D5W for potential hyponatremia is the priority.
Question 6 of 9
After administering 40 mEq of potassium chloride, a nurse evaluates the clients response. Which manifestations indicate that treatment is improving the clients hypokalemia? (Select all tha do not t apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: U waves present on the electrocardiogram (ECG). U waves are indicative of hypokalemia, and their presence indicates that the potassium chloride treatment is improving the condition. Explanation: 1. A: Strong productive cough - This manifestation is not related to potassium levels and does not indicate improvement in hypokalemia. 2. B: Active bowel sounds - While hypokalemia can cause gastrointestinal issues, active bowel sounds alone do not specifically indicate improvement in potassium levels. 3. C: U waves present on ECG - U waves are a classic ECG finding in hypokalemia. The presence of U waves indicates a positive response to potassium chloride treatment. 4. D: No response provided - Not applicable. In summary, the presence of U waves on the ECG is a key indicator of improvement in hypokalemia, while the other manifestations do not directly relate to potassium levels.
Question 7 of 9
After teaching a client to increase dietary potassium intake, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which dietary meal selection indicates the client correctly understands the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it includes foods high in potassium. Raisins, whole wheat toast, and milk are good sources of potassium. Sausage might contain some potassium as well. A: This option lacks potassium-rich foods. B: While strawberries have some potassium, the overall meal lacks a sufficient amount. D: While oatmeal and peaches have potassium, coffee can actually inhibit potassium absorption.
Question 8 of 9
. One day after a patient is admitted to the medical unit, you note that the patient is oliguric. You notify the acutecare nurse practitioner who orders a fluid challenge of 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes. This intervention will achieve which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Help distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function. Rationale: 1. Oliguria is a decrease in urine output. 2. Fluid challenge with normal saline can help determine the cause of oliguria by assessing the response of the kidneys. 3. If the oliguria improves after the fluid challenge, it suggests reduced renal blood flow as the cause. 4. If oliguria persists, it indicates decreased renal function. Summary: A. Fluid challenge does not directly help in distinguishing between hyponatremia and hypernatremia. B. Evaluating pituitary gland function requires specific tests, not just a fluid challenge. D. Treating hypertension-induced oliguria may involve different interventions, not just a fluid challenge.
Question 9 of 9
. A 73-year-old man comes into the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after slipping on a small carpet in his home. The patient fell on his hip with a resultant fracture. He is alert and oriented; his pupils are equal and reactive to light and accommodation. His heart rate is elevated, he is anxious and thirsty, a Foley catheter is placed, and 40 mL of urine is present. What is the nurses most likely explanation for the low urine output?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The man's elevated heart rate, anxiety, and low urine output indicate a sympathetic reaction. This reaction stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to decreased urine output. The sympathetic response triggers the release of renin, which activates angiotensin II and aldosterone, causing vasoconstriction and water reabsorption in the kidneys, ultimately reducing urine output. Choice A is incorrect because low urine output is not solely due to urinating before arrival. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication of traumatic brain injury or ADH deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as atrial natriuretic peptide in heart failure typically increases urine output.