ATI RN
RN ATI Exit Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin and to adjust the dose as needed. While Prothrombin time (PT) and activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) are also related to coagulation studies, monitoring INR specifically helps in managing warfarin therapy. Hemoglobin, on the other hand, is not typically monitored in relation to warfarin therapy.
Question 3 of 9
A community health nurse is assessing an adolescent who is pregnant. Which of the following assessments is the nurse's priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Understanding of infant care. When assessing a pregnant adolescent, the priority is to ensure that she has the necessary knowledge and skills to care for her newborn. This assessment is crucial in promoting the health and well-being of both the adolescent mother and her baby. Option A, social relationships with peers, though important, is not the priority during this assessment. Option B, plans for attending school while pregnant, is also important but does not take precedence over ensuring the adolescent's understanding of infant care. Option C, eligibility for Medicaid, is important for accessing healthcare services but is not the priority assessment in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
A client has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate with orange juice to increase absorption because the vitamin C content in orange juice enhances iron absorption. Choice A is incorrect because ferrous sulfate should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects. Choice B is incorrect because milk can decrease iron absorption. Choice D is incorrect because antacids can reduce the absorption of ferrous sulfate.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Vision changes are a common sign of digoxin toxicity, which can be serious and should be reported to the provider immediately. Changes in heart rate, blood pressure, or respiratory rate are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting vision changes to ensure prompt assessment and intervention.
Question 6 of 9
During an emergency response following a disaster, which client should be recommended for early discharge?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty is stable and can be discharged early. In an emergency response situation, it is crucial to prioritize clients who are medically stable and do not require immediate hospital care. The client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min needs close monitoring and intervention. The client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy requires specialized care and follow-up. The client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis needs ongoing anticoagulant therapy and monitoring, making early discharge not appropriate.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse overhears two assistive personnel (AP) discussing care for a client in the elevator. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report the incident to the AP's charge nurse. This ensures that the issue is addressed internally and allows for proper handling of the situation. Contacting the client's family about the incident (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it could breach confidentiality and escalate the situation unnecessarily. Notifying the client's provider (Choice B) is not the most immediate and effective step to address the issue. Filing a complaint with the ethics committee (Choice C) should be reserved for serious ethical violations, and in this case, reporting to the charge nurse is the more practical and immediate course of action.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has fibromyalgia and requests pain medication. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pregabalin. Pregabalin is a first-line medication for treating pain in clients with fibromyalgia. It works by decreasing the number of pain signals sent out by damaged nerves. Choice B, Lorazepam, is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and not indicated for fibromyalgia pain. Choice C, Colchicine, is used to treat gout by reducing inflammation and not indicated for fibromyalgia. Choice D, Codeine, is an opioid analgesic that is not typically recommended for fibromyalgia due to concerns about tolerance and dependence.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is planning care for a client who is 6 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In caring for a client 6 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty, it is crucial to keep the leg abductor pillow in place while in bed. This intervention helps prevent hip dislocation by maintaining proper alignment and stability of the hip joint. Placing a wedge under the client's affected leg (Choice A) may not provide adequate support and could potentially compromise the surgical site. Keeping the client's hip flexed at a 90° angle (Choice B) or positioning the client with the legs extended and the hip externally rotated (Choice C) are not recommended post total hip arthroplasty as they may increase the risk of hip dislocation.