Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who is comatose and has advance directives that indicate the client does not want life-sustaining measures. The client's family wants the client to have life-sustaining measures. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should arrange for an ethics committee meeting to address the family's concerns while ensuring the client's wishes are respected. Choosing option A allows for a formal discussion involving healthcare professionals, family members, and possibly a legal expert to navigate the situation ethically and legally. Supporting the family's decision to initiate life-sustaining measures (option B) would disregard the client's advance directives and autonomy. Completing an incident report (option C) is not appropriate in this situation as it does not address the conflict of interest between the family's desires and the client's wishes. Encouraging the family to contact an attorney (option D) may escalate the situation unnecessarily before exploring more ethical and collaborative approaches.

Question 3 of 5

A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client with a prescription for digoxin. Which result requires withholding the medication?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A low potassium level (3.1 mEq/L) can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypokalemia can potentiate the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate a need to withhold digoxin.

Question 4 of 5

During an emergency response following a disaster, which client should be recommended for early discharge?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty is stable and can be discharged early. In an emergency response situation, it is crucial to prioritize clients who are medically stable and do not require immediate hospital care. The client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min needs close monitoring and intervention. The client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy requires specialized care and follow-up. The client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis needs ongoing anticoagulant therapy and monitoring, making early discharge not appropriate.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.

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