ATI RN
NCLEX Style Questions on Oxygenation Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Crackles in the lungs. Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion, causing fluid to accumulate in the lungs and resulting in crackles upon auscultation. Edema of the lower extremities (B) is more indicative of right-sided heart failure. A rapid, irregular heart rate (C) may indicate atrial fibrillation but is not specific to left-sided heart failure. A systolic murmur (D) is not typically associated with left-sided heart failure but may indicate valvular heart disease.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a client on a cardiopulmonary unit. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because dyspnea indicates difficulty breathing, which could be a sign of impending respiratory distress or heart failure in a cardiopulmonary unit. This requires immediate assessment and intervention to prevent further complications. A: Teaching about a new medication can be scheduled later. C: A new diagnosis of aortic valve stenosis requires urgent attention but not as immediate as a client with dyspnea. D: An asthma client being discharged can be seen after addressing the client with dyspnea.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse has completed the assessment for a client in the clinic with a diagnosis of chronic asthma. What would be the priority goal the nurse should discuss with the client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Recognizing triggers that cause asthma attacks. This is the priority goal because identifying triggers helps the client avoid or minimize asthma attacks, leading to better management of the condition. By recognizing triggers, the client can take proactive measures to prevent exacerbations. Choices A, B, and D are important aspects of asthma management, but recognizing triggers is crucial for preventing asthma attacks and improving overall quality of life. Maintaining a regular exercise routine (A) can be beneficial but may not be the priority if triggers are not controlled. Complying with medication instructions (B) is important for treatment adherence, but identifying triggers can help reduce the need for rescue medications. Understanding physical limitations (D) is important for self-management, but recognizing triggers is more directly related to preventing asthma exacerbations.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with increased dyspnea. Which laboratory test result requires immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: PaO2 of 55 mmHg. In a client with COPD and increased dyspnea, a low PaO2 indicates hypoxemia, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is needed to improve oxygenation and prevent complications. Option A is within normal range for hemoglobin. Option C shows a normal pH level, indicating no immediate acid-base imbalance. Option D reveals a normal HCO3 level, suggesting no immediate metabolic imbalance. Therefore, the critical issue in this scenario is the low PaO2 level, requiring prompt attention.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client post-lobectomy. What is the most important nursing action to prevent complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encouraging frequent use of the incentive spirometer. Post-lobectomy, the risk of atelectasis is high due to decreased lung capacity. Incentive spirometer helps prevent this by promoting deep breathing and lung expansion. Administering analgesics (A) is important, but not the most crucial. Limiting fluid intake (C) is incorrect as hydration is essential post-surgery. Positioning the client on the operative side (D) can hinder lung expansion.