A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic stable angina. The nurse should identify that which of the following drugs inhibits the action of adenosine diphosphate receptors (ADP) on platelets and can be prescribed to reduce the client's risk for myocardial infarction?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Clopidogrel is the correct answer because it inhibits the action of ADP receptors on platelets, reducing platelet aggregation and the risk of myocardial infarction. Heparin works by inhibiting clotting factors, Warfarin interferes with vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and Alteplase is a thrombolytic drug that dissolves blood clots. None of these drugs target ADP receptors specifically like Clopidogrel does.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). Recombinant factor IX is produced synthetically in a laboratory, eliminating the risk of transmitting prion diseases like CJD. Plasma-derived products, on the other hand, carry a theoretical risk of transmitting CJD due to potential contamination. HIV and cytomegalovirus can be transmitted through blood products, but both plasma-derived and recombinant factor IX are rigorously tested for these viruses. Anaphylaxis is a potential risk with any factor IX product, regardless of the source. Therefore, the nurse should explain to the client that recombinant factor IX practically eliminates the risk of CJD transmission compared to plasma-derived factor IX.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer via IV bolus over 1 to 3 min. This route and method of administration is appropriate for epoetin to ensure proper absorption and effect. Shaking the vial (A) can denature the drug. Diluting with D5W (C) is not recommended as it may alter the drug's effectiveness. Saving the used vial for the next dose (D) is unsafe and violates infection control practices.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the International Normalized Ratio (INR) was specifically developed to standardize the monitoring of warfarin therapy. INR allows for consistent interpretation of prothrombin time results across different laboratories, ensuring accurate dosing of warfarin. Choice A is incorrect because heparin therapy is typically monitored using activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Choice B is incorrect as INR, not aPTT, is used for monitoring oral anticoagulant therapy such as warfarin. Choice C is incorrect as INR is not used for screening clotting system abnormalities, but rather for monitoring anticoagulant therapy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because according to the FAB classification, the L2 stage is characterized by large homogenous blasts with scanty nucleoli and a higher nucleus to cytoplasm ratio. This is because in the L2 stage, the blasts are more immature and have a larger size compared to other stages. Choice A is incorrect because it describes blasts with prominent nucleoli, which is not characteristic of the L2 stage. Choice B is incorrect because it describes small homogenous blasts with scanty nucleoli, which does not align with the characteristics of the L2 stage. Choice D is incorrect because it describes large blasts with basophilic vacuolated cytoplasm, which is not a feature of the L2 stage.