ATI RN
Medical Surgical ATI Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client has burns to his face, ears, and eyelids. What is the priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Difficulty swallowing. This is the priority finding to report because burns to the face, ears, and eyelids can lead to swelling, which can compromise the airway and cause difficulty swallowing or breathing. This finding indicates a potential airway obstruction, which requires immediate intervention to ensure the client's airway remains patent. Incorrect choices: A: Urinary output of 25 mL/hr - While monitoring urinary output is important, it is not the priority in this situation. C: Heart rate of 122/min - An elevated heart rate can be a response to pain and stress, but it is not the priority over airway concerns. D: Pain level of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10 - Pain management is important but not as critical as ensuring airway patency in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
While assessing a client with pulmonary tuberculosis, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lethargy. In pulmonary tuberculosis, lethargy is common due to systemic symptoms like fatigue and weakness. High-grade fever is also common but not specific to pulmonary tuberculosis. Weight loss, not weight gain, is a classic symptom due to decreased appetite. Dry cough is a common symptom, but not as specific as lethargy in pulmonary tuberculosis.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare provider is assessing a client immediately after the removal of the endotracheal tube. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched, harsh respiratory sound that indicates airway obstruction, which can be life-threatening post endotracheal tube removal. Copious oral secretions (B), hoarseness (C), and sore throat (D) are common after endotracheal tube removal but do not indicate immediate airway compromise. Reporting stridor is crucial for prompt intervention to prevent respiratory distress.
Question 4 of 5
While caring for a client who was injured in a motor-vehicle crash and reports dyspnea and severe pain, a nurse in the emergency department notes that the client's chest moves inward during inspiration and bulges out during expiration. The nurse should identify this finding as which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Flail chest. Flail chest occurs when a segment of the rib cage is detached from the rest of the chest wall, causing paradoxical chest movement. In this case, the inward movement during inspiration and outward bulging during expiration are classic signs of flail chest, as the detached segment moves in the opposite direction of the rest of the chest wall. Atelectasis (choice A) refers to collapsed lung tissue, not paradoxical chest movement. Hemothorax (choice C) is the accumulation of blood in the pleural space, which does not cause paradoxical chest movement. Pneumothorax (choice D) is the presence of air in the pleural space, which can cause chest pain and dyspnea but does not result in paradoxical chest movement.
Question 5 of 5
A healthcare professional is auscultating the lungs of a client who has pleurisy. Which of the following adventitious breath sounds should the professional expect to hear?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Loud, scratchy sounds. Pleurisy is inflammation of the pleura, causing friction between layers of the lung lining, resulting in loud, scratchy sounds known as pleural friction rubs. Squeaky, musical sounds (B) are indicative of wheezing in conditions like asthma. Popping sounds (C) can be heard in conditions like atelectasis or pneumonia. Snoring sounds (D) are typically associated with upper airway obstruction, not pleurisy. Therefore, in the context of pleurisy, the healthcare professional should expect to hear loud, scratchy sounds during auscultation.