Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Exit Exam 2024 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing acute mania. The nurse obtained a verbal prescription for restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Obtaining a prescription for restraint within 4 hours is the correct action when managing restraints in a client with acute mania. This timeframe ensures that the use of restraints is promptly evaluated and authorized by a healthcare provider. Requesting a renewal of the prescription every 8 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and may delay appropriate care. Checking the client's peripheral pulse rate every 30 minutes (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with obtaining a prescription for restraints. Documenting the client's condition every 15 minutes (Choice D) is essential for monitoring, but the priority is to secure a prescription for restraints promptly.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a clear liquid diet. Which of the following items should the nurse offer to the client?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Chicken broth. A clear liquid diet includes clear fluids and foods that are liquid at room temperature. Chicken broth is allowed on a clear liquid diet as it is a clear liquid, while tomato soup, apple juice, and cranberry juice are not clear liquids. Tomato soup is a thicker substance and not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Apple juice and cranberry juice are also not clear liquids because they contain pulp and are not transparent like broth.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse in a mental health facility is caring for a client who is angry and throwing objects at staff members. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: During a situation where a client is exhibiting violent behavior like throwing objects and posing a risk to themselves and others, the immediate priority is to ensure the safety of all involved. Placing the client in seclusion is a necessary intervention to prevent harm and allow for de-escalation. Asking the client to identify the trigger or instructing them to calm down may not be effective or safe in this escalated state. Encouraging the client to attend group therapy is not suitable when they are in an agitated and aggressive state that requires immediate intervention.

Question 4 of 5

A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has Cushing's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In Cushing's disease, there is increased cortisol production, which can lead to various metabolic disturbances. One of the common findings is an increased serum potassium level. The other options are incorrect because Cushing's disease typically causes hyperglycemia, not decreased serum glucose levels (A), lymphocytopenia, not increased lymphocyte count (B), and hyponatremia, not decreased serum sodium level (D).

Question 5 of 5

A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.

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