ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings indicates the effectiveness of the treatment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a client with a pulmonary embolism, improvement in anxiety levels can indicate the effectiveness of treatment as it suggests better oxygenation and perfusion. Choices A, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. Increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate worsening of the condition, diminished breath sounds suggest impaired lung function, and ABG results with a pH of 7.48, PaO2 of 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 of 47 mm Hg do not specifically indicate treatment effectiveness for a pulmonary embolism.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Polyuria is the correct answer. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability to concentrate urine, leading to excessive urination (polyuria) and thirst. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. While dehydration from the excessive urination can lead to hypotension rather than hypertension, and weight loss can occur due to fluid loss, the most specific and significant finding expected in diabetes insipidus is polyuria.
Question 3 of 5
A client in her second trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating small, frequent meals is a recommended strategy to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Option A is not as effective as eating small, frequent meals. Option C is unrelated to managing nausea and vomiting, and acetaminophen should only be taken as directed by a healthcare provider. Option D may help reduce nausea in some cases, but the most appropriate response related to managing symptoms is to eat small, frequent meals.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at risk for osteoporosis. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cheddar cheese is an excellent source of calcium, which is essential for bone health. Calcium helps strengthen bones and reduces the risk of osteoporosis. Broccoli (choice A) is also a good source of calcium but not as high as cheddar cheese. Bananas (choice B) and whole wheat bread (choice D) do not provide significant amounts of calcium and are not as effective in preventing osteoporosis as cheddar cheese.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse in a pediatric clinic is teaching a newly hired nurse about the varicella roster. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Children with varicella are contagious until the vesicles crust over, which is important for preventing transmission. Choice B is incorrect as varicella and herpes zoster are caused by different viruses, so the varicella vaccine is given to prevent varicella, not herpes zoster. Choice C is incorrect because varicella is primarily spread through respiratory secretions, so airborne precautions are recommended, not droplet precautions. Choice D is incorrect as children with varicella are contagious even before the first vesicle eruption, not just 4 days before.
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