ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a high-protein diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Chicken breast is an excellent choice for a high-protein diet as it is a lean source of protein. Almonds, while a good source of protein, also contain high amounts of fat. Cheddar cheese is high in protein but also high in saturated fat. Pasta is not a significant source of protein compared to chicken breast.
Question 2 of 9
A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse manager is planning to teach staff about critical pathways. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Critical pathways are structured, multi-disciplinary plans of care designed to decrease health care costs and improve outcomes by standardizing and streamlining processes. Choice A is incorrect because critical pathways have specific timeframes for completion. Choice C is incorrect as patients are expected to follow the critical pathway without deviations to achieve optimal outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because budgets do not create critical pathways; rather, they are based on clinical guidelines and best practices.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who has hypovolemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In hypovolemia, the body responds to decreased fluid volume by increasing the heart rate (tachycardia) to maintain adequate circulation. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not expected in hypovolemia since the heart rate typically increases to compensate for the reduced blood volume. Increased blood pressure (Choice C) is unlikely in hypovolemia as the decreased fluid volume leads to decreased pressure. A bounding pulse (Choice D) is more associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or fever, not specifically with hypovolemia.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a child who has cystic fibrosis and is receiving postural drainage. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take when caring for a child with cystic fibrosis receiving postural drainage is to hold the hand flat to perform percussion. This technique allows for effective chest physiotherapy. Choice A is incorrect because postural drainage should be performed before meals to prevent vomiting during the procedure. Choice B is incorrect because bronchodilators are typically administered before postural drainage to help open up the airways. Choice D is incorrect as the frequency of postural drainage may vary depending on the individual's condition, so performing it twice a day may not be appropriate for all patients.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "You should monitor for signs of infection while taking this medication." When a client is prescribed prednisone, it is essential to monitor for signs of infection due to the immunosuppressive effects of corticosteroids. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because prednisone does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, at a specific time of day, or avoided with dairy products.
Question 7 of 9
A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical record of a client who has schizophrenia and is taking clozapine. Which finding should the healthcare provider identify as a contraindication to the administration of clozapine?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: a low WBC count. Clozapine can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decreased white blood cell count. This condition, known as agranulocytosis, increases the risk of severe infections. Monitoring WBC counts is essential during clozapine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and are not contraindications for administering clozapine.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Start the transfusion with 0.9% sodium chloride. 0.9% sodium chloride is the only IV solution that is compatible with blood products and should be used to prime the tubing before a transfusion. Choice A is incorrect because vital signs should be monitored more frequently, typically every 15 minutes at the beginning of the transfusion. Choice C is incorrect as blood transfusions are usually administered over 2-4 hours, not 6 hours. Choice D is incorrect as the first 500 mL of blood should be infused slowly over 1-2 hours to monitor for any adverse reactions.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has Cushing's disease. The nurse should expect an increase in which of the following laboratory values?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's disease, there is increased cortisol production, leading to elevated blood glucose levels. This occurs due to the role of cortisol in promoting gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Cushing's disease is not typically associated with alterations in serum potassium, calcium, or sodium levels.