Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Exit Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Positive rheumatoid factor. A positive rheumatoid factor is a common laboratory finding in clients with rheumatoid arthritis, indicating an autoimmune response. Option A, increased WBC count, is not typically associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Option B, decreased hemoglobin, and option C, decreased platelet count, are not specific laboratory findings for rheumatoid arthritis.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infections. Which statement by a participant indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement indicates a need for further teaching because antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections. It is important to educate the participant that antibiotics are only effective against bacterial infections, not viral ones. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements that promote good hygiene practices and infection prevention during pregnancy.

Question 3 of 5

A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An FHR baseline of 170/min is considered tachycardia, which is above the normal range during labor and requires immediate attention. High FHR can indicate fetal distress or maternal fever. Choice A, contractions lasting 80 seconds, are within normal range for active labor. Choice C, early decelerations in the FHR, are usually benign and do not typically require immediate intervention. Choice D, a temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F), is within normal limits.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin and to adjust the infusion rate if needed. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important for assessing anemia but is not specific to heparin therapy. INR (choice C) is used to monitor the effects of warfarin, not heparin. Platelet count (choice D) is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but aPTT is the primary laboratory value used to monitor heparin therapy.

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