ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Questions
Question 1 of 9
When a chest tube is accidentally removed from a client, which of the following actions should the nurse NOT take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a chest tube is accidentally removed, the priority action for the nurse is to immediately seal the insertion site with a gloved hand, a sterile occlusive dressing, or petroleum gauze to prevent air from entering the pleural space and causing a pneumothorax. Applying sterile gauze to the insertion site is not the correct initial action. The first step is to prevent respiratory compromise by ensuring the site is sealed. Therefore, the nurse should not apply sterile gauze to the insertion site first.
Question 2 of 9
During the removal of a chest tube, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the removal of a chest tube, instructing the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver is essential. This maneuver involves holding the breath and bearing down, which helps prevent air from entering the pleural space during tube removal, reducing the risk of pneumothorax. Instructing the client to lie on their left side, use the incentive spirometer, or cough at regular intervals is not appropriate during the chest tube removal process.
Question 3 of 9
A client experiencing dyspnea will receive continuous oxygen. Which oxygen device should be used to deliver a precise amount of oxygen?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A Venturi mask is the most appropriate choice for delivering a precise amount of oxygen to a client with dyspnea. Unlike other oxygen delivery devices, the Venturi mask allows for accurate oxygen concentration delivery by controlling the amount of air entrained. This feature is crucial in ensuring the client receives the prescribed oxygen concentration, especially in cases where precise oxygen delivery is required.
Question 4 of 9
A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has dysphagia and a new dietary prescription. Which of the following should the healthcare professional NOT include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a client with dysphagia, it is crucial to ensure safe feeding practices. Assigning an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly may not be appropriate as it can increase the risk of aspiration. Thickened liquids, having suction equipment available, and placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth are all appropriate measures to support a client with dysphagia in safe eating and drinking.
Question 5 of 9
A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
Question 6 of 9
When assessing a client with sinusitis, which technique should the nurse use to identify manifestations of this disorder?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sinusitis is an inflammation of the sinus cavities, which can cause tenderness and pain around the eyes (orbital areas). Palpation of the orbital areas can help identify tenderness and swelling associated with sinusitis. Auscultation of the trachea and percussion of the frontal sinuses are not relevant assessment techniques for sinusitis. Inspection of the nasal mucosa may reveal signs of inflammation, but palpation of the orbital areas is a more direct method to assess for tenderness and swelling in this specific condition.
Question 7 of 9
When preparing an in-service on malpractice issues in nursing, which of the following examples should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering potassium via IV bolus is a high-risk procedure that requires careful attention and adherence to established protocols to prevent serious complications like cardiac arrest. Errors in administering IV medications, especially potent ones like potassium, can lead to severe harm to the patient and potential legal consequences for the healthcare provider. Therefore, including this example in the in-service on malpractice issues helps emphasize the importance of safe medication administration practices and the potential implications of errors.
Question 8 of 9
A client is scheduled for a thoracentesis. Which of the following supplies should NOT be in the client's room?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During a thoracentesis procedure, the focus is on draining fluid or air from the pleural space. An incentive spirometer, which helps improve lung function, is not a necessary supply for this specific procedure. Oxygen equipment, pulse oximeter for monitoring oxygen saturation levels, and sterile dressing for wound care may be needed during or after the procedure.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare professional is monitoring a group of clients for increased risk of developing pneumonia. Which of the following clients should the healthcare professional NOT expect to be at risk?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A client who was vaccinated for pneumococcus and influenza 6 months ago would have a reduced risk of developing pneumonia compared to those who have not been vaccinated. Vaccination helps protect individuals from specific pathogens, thereby lowering the risk of infection. Clients with dysphagia, AIDS, or a closed head injury and receiving ventilation are at higher risk for pneumonia due to compromised immunity, respiratory function, or protective airway reflexes, respectively.