A nurse is caring for a child who is receiving treatment for a respiratory infection. The nurse should instruct the parents to monitor the child for which of the following signs of dehydration?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric respiratory distress cases, dehydration can be a significant concern due to increased respiratory rate and fluid loss. Choosing option B, "Dry mouth and decreased tear production," as the correct answer is crucial because these signs indicate dehydration in children. Dry mouth is a common symptom of dehydration, and decreased tear production can also be an indicator of reduced fluid volume in the body. Option A, "Increase in urination," is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes or kidney issues rather than dehydration. While dehydration can lead to concentrated urine and decreased urination, the primary focus should be on signs of fluid loss rather than increased urination. Option C, "Warm skin with no perspiration," does not directly correlate with dehydration. Dehydration can lead to cool, clammy skin rather than warm skin with no perspiration. This option is more indicative of potential fever rather than dehydration. Option D, "Increased appetite and irritability," are not typical signs of dehydration in pediatric patients. Increased appetite can be a sign of growth or developmental changes, and irritability can be a common behavioral response to illness but does not directly relate to dehydration. Educationally, it is essential for nurses and parents to recognize the early signs of dehydration in children, especially in cases of respiratory distress where fluid balance is crucial for optimal respiratory function. Monitoring for signs like dry mouth and decreased tear production can help in early intervention and prevention of complications related to dehydration in pediatric patients.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the indicators of lung maturity in infants is crucial for providing appropriate care. In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Levels of phosphatidylglycerol and phosphatidylcholine. Phosphatidylglycerol and phosphatidylcholine are two specific surfactant components that are present in the amniotic fluid when fetal lungs are mature. A high level of these phospholipids indicates fetal lung maturity, as they are essential for reducing surface tension in the alveoli and preventing collapse. Option A) Levels of prednisone is incorrect because prednisone is a corticosteroid medication and is not a marker of lung maturity. Option B) Levels of epidermal growth factor is incorrect as it is a protein that promotes cell growth and differentiation, not specifically indicative of lung maturity. Option C) Levels of prostaglandins is also incorrect as prostaglandins are lipid compounds involved in inflammation and smooth muscle contraction, not directly related to lung maturity. Educationally, understanding these specific tests of amniotic fluid can help nurses assess the respiratory status of newborns and intervene promptly if necessary. Monitoring these indicators can guide healthcare providers in determining the need for interventions such as surfactant replacement therapy or respiratory support for infants at risk of respiratory distress syndrome. It is important for pediatric nurses to be knowledgeable about these markers to provide optimal care for neonates experiencing respiratory distress.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C) Increased systemic vascular resistance. In fetal circulation, the foramen ovale allows blood to bypass the non-functioning fetal lungs by shunting blood from the right atrium to the left atrium. This right-to-left shunt ceases and the foramen ovale closes after birth due to an increase in systemic vascular resistance. Option A is incorrect because increased levels of PO2 in the blood of the neonate occur after birth as the newborn starts breathing, but it does not directly cause the closure of the foramen ovale. Option B is incorrect because decreased levels of PCO2 in the blood of the newborn also occur after birth due to the initiation of breathing, but it is not the primary factor leading to the closure of the foramen ovale. Option D is incorrect as the removal of the placenta does lead to a decrease in blood volume returning to the right side of the fetal heart, but this alone does not cause the cessation of the right-to-left shunt through the foramen ovale. Understanding the physiological changes during the transition from fetal to neonatal circulation is crucial for pediatric nurses to provide appropriate care for newborns experiencing respiratory distress and to intervene promptly in case of complications related to the closure of fetal shunts.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of pediatric respiratory distress nursing interventions, understanding the association between conditions and preeclampsia is crucial for providing comprehensive care to pediatric patients. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder that occurs during pregnancy and can have significant implications for both the mother and the infant. The correct answer, option D (II, III, and IV), includes conditions that are commonly associated with preeclampsia. These conditions are: II) Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), III) Placental abruption, and IV) Preterm birth. These conditions are often seen in pregnancies complicated by preeclampsia due to the compromised placental function and reduced blood flow to the fetus, leading to growth restriction, placental abruption, and the need for preterm delivery to prevent further maternal or fetal complications. Options A, B, and C include some but not all of the conditions associated with preeclampsia. Option A includes only IUGR and placental abruption, omitting preterm birth. Option B includes all conditions but is not the correct answer. Option C includes IUGR, preterm birth, and placental abruption, but it excludes the correct combination of conditions necessary to identify the association with preeclampsia. Educationally, understanding the relationship between preeclampsia and these associated conditions is essential for nurses caring for pediatric patients, as they may encounter infants born to mothers with a history of preeclampsia. Recognizing the signs and potential complications of these conditions can aid in early intervention and better outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B) No action is required because this reactive NST is associated with normal uteroplacental function. In this scenario, the NST findings indicate that the fetus is responding well to maternal movement, suggesting good oxygenation and overall well-being. Therefore, there is no immediate need for intervention or acceleration of the delivery process. Option A is incorrect as scheduling a C-section based solely on the NST findings without further assessment could lead to unnecessary interventions and potential risks associated with cesarean delivery. Option C suggests performing a CST before fetal stress is confirmed, which is not indicated in this case as the NST results already indicate fetal well-being. Option D recommending oxytocin administration is not appropriate as there is no indication of fetal distress or need for labor augmentation based on the NST results. Educationally, it is crucial for healthcare providers to understand the interpretation of NST results and appropriate actions based on those findings to provide optimal care for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding normal variations in NST results is essential to avoid unnecessary interventions and ensure appropriate management in obstetric care.