ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is caring for a 70-year-old patient with a history of congestive heart failure. The nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Orthostatic hypotension. In a patient with congestive heart failure, there is impaired cardiac function leading to decreased cardiac output. This can result in orthostatic hypotension, where blood pressure drops upon standing. Monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is important to prevent falls and other complications. B: Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. C: Hypoglycemia may occur in patients with diabetes, but it is not a common complication of congestive heart failure. D: Severe dehydration is not directly related to congestive heart failure unless the patient has concurrent issues such as diarrhea or excessive diuresis.
Question 2 of 9
When examining the face, the nurse is aware that the two pairs of salivary glands that are accessible to examination are the _____ glands.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, parotid and submandibular glands. The parotid and submandibular glands are the two pairs of salivary glands that are accessible for examination in the face. The parotid gland is located near the ear, while the submandibular gland is located under the jaw. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Occipital and submental glands are not salivary glands accessible for examination in the face. B: Parotid gland is correct, but jugulodigastric gland is not a salivary gland. D: Submandibular gland is correct, but occipital gland is not a salivary gland.
Question 3 of 9
What nursing interventions are important for a client in Buck's traction?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Nutrition is important for overall health and healing in a client in Buck's traction. Step 2: Elimination is necessary to prevent complications such as constipation. Step 3: Comfort measures help alleviate pain and promote well-being. Step 4: Safety measures ensure the client's well-being during traction. Step 5: ROM exercises are not recommended to prevent displacement of traction. Transportation and isotonic exercises are not directly related to Buck's traction care.
Question 4 of 9
The papule on the nose of a 52-year-old woman has rounded, pearly borders and a central red ulcer. She tells the nurse that it has been present for several months and is slowly growing larger. Which of the following conditions does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basal cell carcinoma. The clinical presentation of a papule with rounded, pearly borders, central red ulcer, slow growth, and location on the nose is highly indicative of basal cell carcinoma. Basal cell carcinoma commonly presents with these characteristics and is the most common type of skin cancer. It is locally invasive but rarely metastasizes. A: Acne is a common skin condition characterized by comedones, papules, and pustules, not typically presenting with the described features. C: Malignant melanoma usually presents as an asymmetric, irregularly bordered, multicolored lesion with rapid growth and potential for metastasis. D: Squamous cell carcinoma typically presents as a scaly, crusted lesion with potential for metastasis, not showing the described features.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is preparing to do an otoscopic examination on a 2-year-old child. Which of the following reflects correct procedure?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tilt the child's head slightly toward the examiner. This position straightens the ear canal, facilitating visualization. Pulling the pinna down (A) can cause discomfort and obstruct the view. Pulling the pinna up and back (B) is incorrect for a child under 3 years old as it straightens the ear canal in adults. Having the child touch his chin to his chest (D) is unnecessary and may lead to improper examination positioning.
Question 6 of 9
Which serotonin antagonist can be used to relieve nausea and vomiting?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: ondansetron (Zofran). Ondansetron is a selective serotonin receptor antagonist that effectively targets the serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone to relieve nausea and vomiting. It is commonly used in chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. A: Metoclopramide is a dopamine receptor antagonist and primarily used for gastrointestinal motility disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. C: Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine with sedative properties, primarily used for anxiety and itching, not specifically for nausea relief. D: Prochlorperazine is a dopamine receptor antagonist primarily used for treating psychotic disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. In summary, ondansetron is the correct choice as it targets serotonin receptors specifically for relieving nausea and vomiting, whereas the other options focus on different mechanisms of action.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following should be assessed first in a client with a high fever?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Check for dehydration. When a client has a high fever, assessing for dehydration is crucial because fever can lead to increased fluid loss through sweating and increased respiratory rate. Dehydration can exacerbate the client's condition and needs to be addressed promptly. Monitoring respiratory rate (choice A) and pulse (choice D) are important assessments but do not address the immediate need to identify dehydration. Obtaining a blood sample (choice B) may be necessary at some point but is not the initial priority in a client with a high fever. Thus, checking for dehydration should be assessed first to ensure proper management of the client's condition.
Question 8 of 9
What is the most appropriate action for a nurse when caring for a client with severe hypothermia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer warm IV fluids. This is because in severe hypothermia, the body's core temperature drops dangerously low, leading to decreased circulation and potential organ failure. Administering warm IV fluids helps to gradually raise the core temperature and prevent further complications. Choice B (Warming the client with a heating pad) can cause rewarming shock and skin burns. Choice C (Placing the client in a supine position) is not directly related to treating hypothermia. Choice D (Administering analgesics) is not the priority in treating severe hypothermia.
Question 9 of 9
In a patient with anisocoria, the nurse would expect to observe:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Anisocoria is a condition where pupils are of unequal size. 2. It is typically caused by issues in the eye muscles or nerves controlling pupil size. 3. The nurse would expect to observe pupils of different sizes. 4. Dilated pupils (choice A) and excessive tearing (choice B) are not indicative of anisocoria. 5. An uneven curvature of the lens (choice D) does not directly relate to pupil size differences. Summary: Correct answer C is supported by the definition of anisocoria and its usual presentation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the characteristic feature of anisocoria.