ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse is aware of the need to assess patients risks for anaphylaxis. What health care procedure constitutes the highest risk for anaphylaxis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Computed tomography with contrast solution. This procedure involves the use of contrast agents that can trigger anaphylaxis due to the patient's allergic reaction to the contrast solution. Contrast solutions contain substances like iodine, which can cause severe allergic reactions in some individuals. Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening allergic reaction that can occur rapidly and requires immediate intervention. Assessing the risk for anaphylaxis during this procedure is crucial to prevent any potential harm to the patient. Incorrect choices: A: Administration of the measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine - While allergic reactions can occur with vaccines, the risk of anaphylaxis with MMR vaccine is lower compared to the contrast solution used in CT scans. B: Rapid administration of intravenous fluids - Rapid IV fluid administration can cause fluid overload or electrolyte imbalances, but it is not typically associated with triggering anaphylaxis. D: Administration of nebulized bronchodil
Question 2 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with serous otitis media for the third time in the past year. How should the nurse best interpret this patients health status?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Serous otitis media is common in children due to eustachian tube dysfunction, not usually related to systemic infections. Step 2: Recurrent infections may indicate age-related changes like decreased eustachian tube function. Step 3: Age-related physiologic changes can lead to poor drainage, causing recurrent otitis media. Step 4: Therefore, choice A is correct as it aligns with the typical presentation of serous otitis media in the context of age. Summary: Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication for temporary mobility restriction. Choice C is incorrect as serous otitis media does not typically warrant assessment for nasopharyngeal cancer. Choice D is incorrect as blood cultures are not typically indicated for serous otitis media.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is providing care to a group of patients.Which patient will the nurse seefirst?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because reflex incontinence with elevated blood pressure and pulse rate indicates a potentially urgent medical situation that requires immediate attention to address the underlying cause. This patient may be at risk for a serious medical event such as autonomic dysreflexia, which requires prompt intervention. Choice A is incorrect because urge incontinence does not pose an immediate threat to the patient's health compared to the urgent medical situation presented in choice B. Choice C is incorrect because while stool on the catheter tubing may indicate the need for intervention, it is not as time-sensitive as the situation presented in choice B. Choice D is incorrect because the patient who has just voided and needs a postvoid residual test does not have any urgent medical issues that require immediate attention compared to the patient with reflex incontinence and elevated vital signs.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse on the medicalsurgical unit is reviewing discharge instructions with a patient who has a history of glaucoma. The nurse should anticipate the use of what medications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cholinergics. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure due to impaired drainage of aqueous humor. Cholinergics help to constrict the pupil and improve the outflow of aqueous humor, thus reducing intraocular pressure. This medication class is commonly used to manage glaucoma. A: Potassium-sparing diuretics are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma. They are mainly used to manage conditions like hypertension and heart failure. C: Antibiotics are not indicated for the routine management of glaucoma. They are used to treat infections. D: Loop diuretics are not commonly used in the treatment of glaucoma. They are primarily used to manage conditions like edema and hypertension.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is teaching preventative measures for otitis externa to a group of older adults. What action should the nurse encourage?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rinsing the ears with normal saline after swimming. This is because rinsing with normal saline helps to remove excess moisture and debris, preventing bacterial growth that can lead to otitis externa. Avoiding loud noises (B) is important for overall ear health but does not specifically prevent otitis externa. Instilling antibiotic ointments regularly (C) is not recommended as it can disrupt the ear's natural flora. Avoiding cotton swabs (D) is important to prevent injury but does not directly prevent otitis externa.
Question 6 of 9
A child has been transported to the emergency department (ED) after a severe allergic reaction. The ED nurse is evaluating the patients respiratory status. How should the nurse evaluate the patients respiratory status? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Assessing breath sounds is crucial in evaluating respiratory status as it helps identify any signs of airway obstruction or respiratory distress. This includes listening for wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds. Lung function testing (A) may not be feasible in an acute emergency situation. Oxygen saturation (C) is important but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of respiratory status. Monitoring respiratory pattern (D) and assessing respiratory rate (E) are important but do not directly assess breath sounds, which are vital in identifying immediate respiratory issues.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient who presented to the ED with priapism. The student nurse is aware that this condition is classified as a urologic emergency because of the potential for what?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Permanent vascular damage. Priapism is a prolonged erection that can lead to ischemia and damage to the penile tissue due to impaired blood flow, potentially resulting in permanent vascular damage. Urinary tract infection (A) is unrelated to priapism. Chronic pain (B) may occur but is not the primary concern. Future erectile dysfunction (D) can result from priapism but is not as immediate or severe as permanent vascular damage. Therefore, C is the most critical consequence to address in priapism.
Question 8 of 9
A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nursing care is N R I G B.C M U S N T O based on which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hemorrhage is the primary concern in ectopic pregnancy due to the risk of rupture and severe bleeding. Immediate intervention is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications. Choice B is incorrect as future fertility may be affected but is not the immediate concern. Choice C is incorrect as bed rest and analgesics are not effective treatments for ectopic pregnancy. Choice D is incorrect as a D&C is not performed in ectopic pregnancy; surgical intervention is required to remove the ectopic pregnancy.
Question 9 of 9
A patient has been admitted to the hospital numerous times. The nurse asks the patient to share a personal story about the care that has been received. Which interaction is the nurse using?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Narrative. The nurse is using a narrative interaction by asking the patient to share a personal story. This helps the patient express their experiences, emotions, and perspectives, promoting a deeper understanding of their care needs. A: Nonjudgmental is incorrect as it focuses on avoiding biases. B: Socializing is incorrect as it implies casual conversation. D: SBAR is incorrect as it stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation, used for concise communication in healthcare settings.